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NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Hydrocarbons

May 9, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Hydrocarbons

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1. Which one is the correct order of acidity? (NEET 2017)

2.Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction : (NEET 2017)

3.With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true? (NEET 2017)
(a) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same.
(b) Both bond angle and bond length change.
(c) Both bond angle and bond length remain same.
(d) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes.

4.Which of the following can be used as the halide component for Friedel-Crafts reaction? (NEET-II 2016)
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) Bromobenzene
(c) Chloroethene
(d) Isopropyl chloride

5.In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar? (NEET-II 2016)

6.pyrrole the electron density is maximum on (NEET-II 2016)

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 5

7.Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction? (NEET-II 2016)

8. In the given reaction, (NEET-II 2016)

9. The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula (NEET-II 2016)
(a)C₃H₆
(b) C₂H₂
(c) C₄H₁₀
(d) C₂H₄

10. The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is (NEET-I 2016)
(a) the eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain
(b) the staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain
(c) the staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain
(d) the eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.

11. Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed cone. H₂S0₄ and HN0₃. If a large amount of KHS0₄ is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be (NEET-I 2016)
(a) unchanged
(b) doubled
(c) faster
(d) slower.

12. The pair of electrons in the given carbanion, CH₃C≡C^–, is present in which of the following orbitals? (NEET-I 2016)
(a) sp²
(b) sp
(c) 2p
(d) sp³

13. In the reaction (NEET-I 2016)

X and Y are
(a) X= 2-Butyne, Y= 2-Hexyne
(b) X= 1-Butyne, Y= 2-Hexyne
(c) X= 1-Butyne, Y= 3-Hexyne
(d) X= 2-Butyne, Y= 3-Hexyne.

14. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule to give a product 1-chloro-1 methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is (2015)

15. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by heating which of the following compounds with a strong acid? (NEET-I 2016)

16. A single compound of the structure,

, is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds? (2015,cancelled)

17. Given :

The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as (2015,cancelled)
(a) II > III > I
(b) II > I > III
(c) I > II > III
(d) III > II > I

18. What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br₂ in the presence of FeBr₃? (2014)

19. Identify Z in the sequence of reactions : (2014)

20. Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product (C0₂)? (2014)
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethyne
(c) Ethene
(d) Ethanol

21. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft’s reaction easily? (NEET 2013)
(a) Nitrobenzene
(b) Toluene
(c) Cumene
(d) Xylene

22. Which of the following chemical system is non aromatic? (Karnataka NEET 2013)

23. In the following reaction: (Karnataka NEET 2013)

product “P” will not give
(a) Tollen’s reagent test
(b) Brady’s reagent test
(c) Victor Meyer test
(d) Iodoform test

24. In the following reaction (2014)

25. Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism? (2012)
(a) Maleic acid
(b) α-amino acids
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Tartaric acid

26. Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne? (Mains 2012)
(a) NaNH₂
(b) HCl
(c) 0₂
(d) Br₂

27. In the following the most stable conformation of n-butane is (2010)

28. Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by (2010)
(a) oxidation
(b) cracking
(c) distillation under reduced pressure
(d) hydrolysis.

29. The reaction of toluene with Cl₂ in presence of FeCl₃ gives X and reaction in presence of light gives Y. Thus, X and Y are (2010)
(a) X = Benzal chloride, Y = o-chlorotoluene
(b) X = m-chlorotoluene, Y = p-chlorotoluene
(c) X = o- and p-chlorotoluene, Y = Trichloromethyl benzene
(d) X = Benzyl chloride, Y = m-chlorotoluene

30. In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a product D.(2010)

31. Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable? (Mains 2010)

32. The state of hybridisation of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the hydrocarbon,

is in the following sequence (2009)
(a) sp³, sp², sp² and sp
(b) sp, sp², sp² and sp³
(c) sp, sp², sp³ and sp²
(d) sp, sp³, sp²and sp³

33. Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism? (2009)
(a) Butanol
(b) 2-Butyne
(c) 2-Butenol
(d) 2-Butene

34. Benzene reacts with CH₃Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ to form (2009)
(a) chlorobenzene
(b) benzyl chloride
(c) xylene
(d) toluene.

35. (2008)

36. In the hydrocarbon,

The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence (2008)
(a) sp, sp², sp³
(b) sp³, sp², sp
(c) sp², sp, sp³
(d) sp, sp³, sp²

37. Predict the product Cobtained in the following reaction of 1-butyne. (2007)

38. Which of the compound with molecular formula C₅H₁₀ yields acetone on ozonolysis? (2007)
(a) 3-Methyl-1 -butene
(b) Cyclopentane
(c) 2-Methyl-1-butene
(d) 2-Methyl-2-butene

39. Which one of the following alkenes will react faster with H₂ under catalytic hydrogenation conditions? (2005)

40.Products of the following reaction : (2005)

(a) CH₃COOH + CO₂
(b) CH₃COOH+ HOOC.CH₂CH₃
(c) CH₃CHO + CH₃CH₂CHO
(d) CH₃COOH + CH₃COCH₃

41. Using anhydrous AlCl₃ as catalyst, which one of the following reactions produces ethylbenzene (PhEt)? (2004)
(a) H₃C – CH₂OH + C₆H₆
(b) CH₃ – CH = CH₂ + C₆H₆
(c) H₂C = CH₂ + C₆H₆
(d) H₃C-CH₃ + C₆H₆

42. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives (2004)
(a) isopropyl bromide
(b) 3-bromopropane
(c) allyl bromide
(d) n-propyl bromide.

43. The compound

on reaction with NaI0₄ in the presence of KMn0₄ gives (2003)
(a) CH₃COCH₃
(b) CH₃COCH₃ + CH₃COOH
(c) CH₃COCH₃ + CH₃CHO
(d) CH₃CHO + C0₂

44. Which one of the following is a free-radical substitution reaction? (2003)

45. The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline (I), benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is (2003)
(a) III > II > I
(b) II > III > I
(c) I < II >III
(d) I > II > III

46.(2002)

47.When CH₃CH₂CHCl₂ is treated with NaNH₂, the product formed is (2002)

48. In preparation of alkene from alcohol using Al₂0₃ which is the effective factor? (2001)
(a) Porosity of Al₂0₃
(b) Temperature
(c) Concentration
(d) Surface area of Al₂0₃.

49. The correct acidic order of the following is (2001)

(a) I > II > III
(b)III > I > II
(c) II > III > I
(d) I > III > II

50. Increasing order of electrophilic substitution for following compounds (2000)

(a) IV<I<II<III
(b)III < II < I < IV
(c) I<IV<III<II
(d)II < III < I < IV

51.In Friedel-Crafts reaction, toluene can be prepared by (2000)
(a) C₆H₆+ CH₃Cl
(b) C₆H₅Cl + CH₄
(c) C₆H₆+ CH₂Cl₂
(d) C₆H₆ + CH₃COCl

52. Which reagent converts propene to 1-propanol?(2000)
(a) H₂0, H₂S0₄
(b) B₂H₆, H₂0₂, OH^–
(c) Hg(OAc)₂, NaBH₄/H₂0
(d) Aq. KOH

53. Which is maximum stable? (2000)
(a) 1-Butene
(b) cis-2-Butene
(c) trans-2-Butene
(d) All have same stability.

54. 2-Butene shows geometrical isomerism due to (2000)
(a) restricted rotation about double bond
(b) free rotation about double bond
(c) free rotation about single bond
(d) chiral carbon.

55. Dihedral angle in staggered form of ethane is (2000)
(a) 0°
(b) 120°
(c) 60°
(d) 180°

56. When acetylene is passed through dil. H₂S0₄ in the presence of HgS0₄, the compound formed is (1999)
(a) acetic acid
(b) ketone
(c) ether
(d) acetaldehyde

57. In Friedel-Craft’s alkylation, besides AlCl₃ the other reactants are (1999)
(a) C₆H₆ + CH₃Cl
(b)C₆H₆+CH₄
(c) C₆H₆ + NH₃
(d) C₆H₆+CH₃C0Cl

58. Which of the following compounds will be most easily attacked by an electrophile? (1999, 1998)

59. Which’ one of these is not compatible with arenes? (1998)
(a) Electrophilic additions
(b) Delocalisation of π-electrons
(c) Greater stability
(d) Resonance

60. 2-Bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in ethanol. The major product obtained is (1998)
(a) trans-2-pentene
(b) 1-pentene
(c) 2-ethoxy pentane
(d) 2-cis-pentene

61. Which of the following reaction is expected to readily give a hydrocarbon product in good yields? (1997)

62. (1997)

where M = Molecule and R = Reagent. M and R are
(a) CH₃CH₂OH and HCl
(b) CH₂ = CH₂ and heat
(c) CH₃CH₂Cl and NaOH
(d) CH₂Cl – CH₂OH and aq. NaHC0₃.

63. The cylindrical shape of an alkyne is due to (1997)
(a) two sigma C – C and one π C – C bonds
(b) one sigma C – C and two π C-C bonds
(c) three sigma C – C bonds
(d) three π C – C bonds.

64. In the commercial gasolines, the type of hydrocarbons which are more desirable is (1997)
(a) linear unsaturated hydrocarbon
(b) toluene
(c) branched hydrocarbon
(d) straight-chain hydrocarbon.

65. Among the following compounds (I-III) the correct reaction with electrophile is (1997)

(a)I > II > III
(b) I = II > III
(c)II > III > I
(d) III < I < II

66. The most stable conformation of n-butane is (1997)
(a) gauche
(b) staggered
(c) skew boat
(d) eclipsed.

67. Electrophile in the case of chlorination of benzene in the presence of FeCl₃ is (1996)
(a) Cl
(b) FeCl₃
(c) Cl⁺
(d) Cl^–

68. The reaction, CH₂ = CH – CH₃ + HBr—> CH₃CHBr – CH₃ is (1996)
(a) electrophilic substitution
(b) free radical addition
(c) nucleophilic addition
(d) electrophilic addition.

69. Which of the following has zero dipole moment? (1996)
(a) 1 -Butene
(b) 2-Methyl-1 -propene
(c) cis-2-Butene
(d) trans-2-Butene

70. The alkene R – CH = CH₂ reacts readily with B₂H₆ and the product on oxidation with alkaline hydrogen peroxides produces (1995)

71. One of the following which does not observe the anti-Markownikoff ‘s addition of HBr, is (1994)
(a) pent-2-ene
(b) propene
(c) but-2-ene
(d) but-l-ene

72. The reactive species in the nitration of benzene is (1994)
(a) NO₃
(b) HN0₃
(c) N0₂₊
(d) N0_2-

73.

The reagent is (1993)
(a) Na
(b) HCl in H₂0
(c) KOH in C₂H₅OH
(d) Zn in alcohol.

74. Reduction of 2-butyne with sodium in liquid ammonia gives predominantly (1993)
(a) cis-2-butene
(b) no reaction
(c) trans-2-butene
(d) n-butane.

75. A compound is treated with NaNH₂ to give sodium salt. Identify the compound. (1993)
(a) C₂H₂
(b) C₂H₂
(c) C₂H₂
(d) C₂H₄

76. Reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to different carbon atoms in alkanes has the order (1993)
(a) tertiary > primary > secondary
(b) primary > secondary > tertiary
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) tertiary > secondary > primary.

77. Which is the correct symbol relating the two Kekule structures of benzene? (1993)

78. Select the true statement about benzene amongst the following (1992)
(a) because of unsaturation benzene easily undergoes addition
(b) there are two types of C – C bonds in benzene molecule
(c) there is cyclic delocalisation of π-electrons in benzene
(d) monosubstitution of benzene gives three isomeric products.

79. Acetylenic hydrogens are acidic because (1989)
(a) sigma electron density of C – H bond in acetylene is nearer to carbon, which has 50% .s-character
(b) acetylene has only open hydrogen in each carbon
(c) acetylene contains least number of hydrogens among the possible hydrocarbons having two carbons
(d) Acetylene belongs to the class of alkynes with molecular formula, C_nH_2n-2

80. Which is the most suitable reagent among the following to distinguish compound (3) from rest of the compounds? (1989)
(1) CH₃ – C ≡ C – CH₃
(2) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
(3) CH₃– CH₂C = CH
(4) CH₃– CH = CH₂
(a) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride
(b) Bromine in acetic acid
(c) Alk. KMn0₄
(d) Ammoniacal silver nitrate.

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Optics

May 9, 2018 by Anthony Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Optics

1. A beam of light consisting of red, green and j blue colours is incident on a right angled prism. ; The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. (AlPMT 2015)

(a) not separate the three colours at all
(b) separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
(c) separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
(d) separate all the three colours from one another

2. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern, the i phase difference between the Huygen’s wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is (aipmt 2015)

(a) π radian
(b) π/8 radian
(c) π/4 radian
(d) π/2 radian

3. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a straight black line of length L is drawn on inside part of objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is I. (Aipmt 2015)
The magnification of the telescope is

4. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio 1: 25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in the interference pattern, is I_max/I_min (Aipmt 2015)

5. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength λ, diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width ‘a’ is of the ordcr of the wavelength of the light. If ‘D’ is the distance of the screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be (AlPMT 2015, Cancelled)

6. Two identical thin piano-convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index I .7. The focal length f the combination is (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)

(a) -50 cm
(b) 50 cm
(e) -20 cm
(d) -25 cm

7. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is (AlPMT 2015, Cancelled)

(a) 90° – A
(b) 180°+ 2 A
(c) 180° – 3A
(d) 180° – 2A

8. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern? (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)

(a) 0.5 mm
(b) 0.02 mm
(c) 02 mm
(d) 0.1mm

9. A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is (AIPMT 2014)

(a) 1.2 cm
(b) 1.2 mm
(c) 2.4 cm
(d) 2.4 mm

10. In the Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference λ is K, (λ being the wavelength of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is λ/4 will be (AIPMT 2014)

(a) K
(b) K /4
(c) K/2
(d) zero

11. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of (AIPMT 2014)

(a) microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease.
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase.
(c) microscope and telescope both will decrcasc.
(d) microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase.

12. The angle of a prism is A. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index μ, of the prism is (AIPMT 2014)

(a) 2 sinA
(b) 2 cosA
(c) 1/2 cosA
(d) tanA

13. A piano convex lens fits exactly into a piano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices μ₁ and μ₂ and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination (NEET 2013)

14. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁ = 12000 Å and λ₂ = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other? (NEET 2013)

(a) 4 mm
(b) 3 m
(c) 8 mm
(d) 6mm

15. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be (NEET 2013)

(a) 1.67 cm
(b) 1.5 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm

16. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct? (NEET 2013)

(a) The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
(b) The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected.
(c) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.
(d) The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.

17. In Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The separation between the slits is reduced to half. As a result the fringe width (Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) is halved
(b) becomes four times
(c) remains unchanged
(d) is doubled

18. A parallel beam of light of wavelength λ is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of slit is ( Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) 2π
(b) 3π
(c) 4π
(d) πλ

19. The reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset is due to ( Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) the scattering of light
(b) the polarisation of light
(c) the colour of the sun
(d) the colour of the sky

20. Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70°. A ray incident on one mirror at angle, θ after reflection falls on second mirror and is reflected from there parallel to first mirror. The value of θ is ( Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) 45°
(b) 30°
(c) 55°
(d) 50°

21. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index (Prelims 2012)

(a) equal to that of glass
(b) less than one
(c) greater than that of glass
(d) less than that of glass

22. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is μ, the angle of incidence i, is nearly equal to (prelims 2012)

23. A concave mirror of focal length f₁, is placed at a distance of d from a convex lens of focal length f₂. A beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens – concave mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance d must equal (prelims 2012)

(a) f₁ + f₂
(b)  -f₁ + f₂
(c)  2f₁ + f₂
(d)  -2f₁ + f₂

24. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are (Prelims 2012)

(a) 10 cm, 10 cm
(b) 15 cm, 5 cm
(c) 18 cm, 2 cm
(d) 11 cm, 9 cm

25. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index(Mains 2012)

(a) lies between √2 and 1
(b) lies between 2 and √2
(c) is less than 1
(d) is greater than 2

26. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is (Mains 2012)

(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 5 cm

27. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection? (Prelims 2011)

(a) Working of optical fibre
(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
(c) Mirage on hot summer days
(d) Brilliance of diamond

28. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens? (Prelims 2011)

(a) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
(b) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
(c) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
(d) Real, inverted, height = 1 cm

29. A thin prism of angle 15° made of glass of refractive index μ₁= 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of refractive index μ₂ = 1.75. The combination of the prisms produces dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism should be (Mains 2011)

(a) 5°
(b) 7°
(c) 10°
(d) 12°

30. A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed through the lens the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is (Mains 2011)

(a) 5 cm
(b) -10 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) -30 cm

31. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index μ, falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45°. For which of the following value of μ the ray can undergo total internal reflection? (Prelims 2010 )

(a) μ = 1.33
(b) μ = 1.40
(c) μ = 1.50
(d) μ = 1.25

32. A lens having foca) length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of diameter d/2 in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will be respectively (prelims 2010)

33. The speed of light in media M₁ and M₂ are 1.5 x 10⁸ m/s and 2.0 x 10⁸ m/s respectively. A ray of light enters from medium M₁ to M₂ at an incidence angle i. If the ray suffers total internal reflection, the value of i is (mains 2010)

34. A ray of light is incident on a 60° prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (i.e., incident face) of the prism is (Mains 2010)

(a) zero
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°

35. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f and f are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination is (prelims 2008)

36. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing sunlight on a piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the sun is 1.39 x 10⁹ m and its mean distance from the earth is 1.5 x 10¹¹ m. What is the diameter of the sun’s image on the paper? (Prelims 2008)
(a) 6.5 x 10^-5 m
(b) 12.4 x 10^-4 m
(c) 9.2 x 10^-4m
(d) 6.5 x 10^-4m

37. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light travelling in the liquid? (2007)

(a) 2.4 x 10⁸ m/s
(b) 3.0 x 10⁸ m/s
(c) 1.2 x 1o⁸ m/s
(d) 1.8 x 10⁸ m/s.

38. The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 x 10’ Hz and wavelength is 5000 A. The refractive index of material will be (2007)

(a) 1.50
(b) 3.00
(c) 1.33
(d) 1.40

39. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again? (2006)

(a) 2 cm upward
(b) 1 cm upward
(c) 4.5 cm downward
(d) 1 cm downward.

40. A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power in diopters of the combination is (2006)

(a) zero
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) infinite.

41. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 Å is of the order of (2005)

(a) 10⁶ rad
(b) 10^-2 rad
(c) 10^-4 rad
(d) 10^-6 rad.

42. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometre from two objects. The minimum distance between these two objects, which can be resolved by the telescope, when the mean wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is of the order of (2004)

(a) 0.5 m
(b) 5 m
(c) 5 mm
(d) 5 cm

43. The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path after reflection from the mirrored surface if its angle of incidence on the prism is (2004)

(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 0°
(d) 30°

44. A beam of light composed of red and green ray is incident obliquely at a point on the face of rectangular glass slab. When coming out on the opposite parallel face, the red and green ray emerge from (2004)

(a) Two points propagating in two different non parallel directions
(b) Two points propagating in two different parallel directions.
(c) One point propagating in two different directions.
(d) One point propagating in the same directions.

45. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (2003)
(i) XOX’ and (ii) YOY’ as shown in the figure. Let f, f ‘,f ” be the focal lengths of the complete lens, of each half in case (i), and of each half in case (ii), respectively.
Choose the correct statement from the following

46. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will (2003)

(a) become zero
(b) become infinite
(c) become small, but non-zero
(d) remain unchanged

47. A bulb is located on a wall. Its image is to be obtained on a parallel wall with the help of convex lens. The lens is placed at a distance d ahead of second wall, then required focal tength will be (2002)

48.Diameter of human eye lens is 2 mm. What will be the minimum distance between two points to resolve them, which are situated at a distance of 50 meter from eye. The wavelength of light is 5000 Å (2002)

(a) 2.32 m
(b) 4.28 mm
(c) 1.25 cm
(d) 12.48 cm.

49. For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the condition of total internal refraction of this ray the required refractive index of prism will be (2002)

50. Optical fibre are based on (2001)

(a) total internal reflection
(b) less scattering
(c) refraction
(d) less absorption coefficient.

51. A ray of light travelling in air have wavelength λ, frequency n, velocity v and intensity I. If this ray enters into water then these parameters are λ’, n’, v ‘ and I’ respectively. Which relation is correct from following? (2001)

(a) λ = λ’
(b) n = n’
(c) v = v’
(d) I = I’

52. A disc is placed on a surface of pond which has refractive index 5/3. A source of light is placed 4 m below the surface of liquid. The minimum radius of disc needed so that light is not coming out is, (2001)

(a) ∞
(b) 3 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 4 m.

53. A bubble in glass slab (μ = 1.5) when viewed from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from other side, then thickness of slab is (2000)

(a) 3.75 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 10.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm.

54. A tall man of height 6 feet, want to see his full image. Then required minimum length of the mirror will be (2000)

(a) 12 feet
(b) 3 feet
(c) 6 feet
(d) any length.

55. For a plano convex lens (μ = 1.5) has radius of curvature 10 cm. It is silvered on its plane surface. Find focal length after silvering (2000)

(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 25 cm.

56. Rainbow is formed due to (2000)

(a) scattering and refraction
(b) internal reflection and dispersion
(c) reflection only
(d) diffraction and dispersion.

57. A piano convex lens is made of refractive index 1.6. The radius of curvature of the curved surface is 60 cm. The focal length of the lens is (1999)

(a) 200 cm
(b) 100 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm

58. Colours appear on a thin soap film and on soap bubbles due to the phenomenon of (1999)

(a) interference
(b) dispersion
(c) refraction
(d) diffraction

59. If the refractive index of a material of equilateral prism is √3 , then angle of minimum deviation of the prism is (1999)
(a) 60°
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) 75°

60. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it? (1998)

(a) 50 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 60 cm

61. Light enters at an angle of incidence in a transparent rod of refractive index n. For what value of the refractive index of the material of the rod the light once entered into it will not leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be the value of angle of incidence? (1998)

(a) n = 1.1
(b) n = 1
(c) n > √2
(d) n = 1.3

62. An astronomical telescope of tenfold angular magnification has a length of 44 cm. The focal length of the objective is (1997)

(a) 44 cm
(b) 440 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 40 cm.

64. An electromagnetic radiation of frequency n, wavelength λ, travelling with velocity v in air, enters a glass slab of refractive index μ. The frequency, wavelength and velocity of light in the glass slab will be respectively (1997)

65. If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of focal length 50 cm are combined together, what will be their resulting power? (1996)

(a) + 7.5 D
(b) – 0.75 D
(c) +6.5 D
(d) -6.5 D.

66. The refractive index of water is 1.33. What will be the speed of light in water? (1996)

(a) 4 x 10⁸ m/s
(b) 1.33 x 10⁸ m/s
(c) 3 x 10⁸ m/s
(d) 2.25 x 10⁸ m/s.

67. A ray of light from a denser medium strikes a rare medium as shown in figure. The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 90° with each other. The angles of reflection and refraction are r and r’. The critical angle would be (1996)

68. If f_v and f_R are the focal lengths of a convex lens for violet and red light respectively and F_vand F_m are the focal lengths of a concave lens for violet and red light respectively, then we must have (1996)

69. having a refractive index p. If c is the velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is (1996)

70. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A₁ and A₂ on the wall, for its two different positions. The area of the source of light is (1995)

71. Exposure time of camera lens at f/2.8 setting is 1/200 second. The correct time of exposure at f/5.8 is?

(a) 0.20 second
(b) 0.40 second
(c) 0.02 second
(d) 0.04 second

72. In a Fresnel biprism experiment, the two positions of lens give separation between the slits as 16 cm and 9 cm respectively. What is the actual distance of separation? (1995)

(a) 13 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 12.5 cm
(d) 12 cm.

73. Four lenses of focal length +15 cm and +150 cm are available for making a telescope. To produce the largest magnification, the focal length of the eyepiece should be (1994)

(a) +15 cm
(b) +150 cm
(c) -150 cm
(d) -15 cm.

74. The blue colour of the sky is due to the phenomenon of (1994)

(a) scattering
(b) dispersion
(c) reflection
(d) refraction.

75. Ray optics is valid, when characteristic dimensions are (1994, 89)

(a) much smaller than the wavelength of light
(b) of the same order as the wavelength of light
(c) of the order of one millimetre
(d) much larger than the wavelength of light.

76. A small source of light is 4 m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3. In order to cut off all the light, coming out of water surface, minimum diameter of the disc placed on the surface of water is (1994)

(a) 6 m
(b) o m
(c) 3 m
(d) 4 m.

77. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 A is incident normally on a single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focussed by a convex lens on a screen placed in focal plane. The first minimum will be formed for the angle of diffraction equal to (1993)

(a) 0°
(b) 15°
(c) 30°
(d) 50°

78. Interference was observed in interference chamber where air was present, now the chamber is evacuated, and if the same light is used, a careful I observer will see (1993)

(a) no interference
(b) interference with brighter bands
(c) interference with dark bands
(d) interference with larger width

79. Time taken by sunlight to pass through a window of thickness 4 mm whose refractive index is 3/2 is

(a) 2 x 10^-4 s
(b) 2 x 10⁸ s
(c) 2 x 10^-11 s
(d) 2 x 10¹¹ s

80. There is a prism with refractive index equal to √2 and the refractive angle equal to 30°. One of the refractive surface of the prism is polished. A beam of monochromatic light will be retrace its path if its angle of indence over the refracting surface of the prism is (1992)

(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°

81. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s double slit expt is replaced by monochromatic blue of light of the same intensity

(a) fringe width will decrease
(b) fringe width will increase
(c) fringe width will remain unchanged
(d) fringes will becomes less intense (1992)

82. In Young’s double slit experiment carried out with light of wavelength (λ) = 5000 Å, the distance between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at x = 0. The third maximum (taking the central maximum as zeroth maximum) will be at x equal to (1992)

(a) 1.67 cm
(b) 1.5 cm
(c) 0.5 cm
(d) 5.0 cm

83. A beam of monochromatic light is refracted from vacuum into a medium of refractive index 1.5. The wavelength of refracted light will be (1992, 91)

(a) depend on intensity of refracted light
(b) same
(c) smaller
(d) larger

84. Green light wavelength 5460 Å is inbident on an air-glass interface. If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, the wavelength of light in glass would be (c = 3 x 10⁸ ms^-1) (1991)

(a) 3640 A
(b) 5460 A
(c) 4861 A
(d) none of these

85. Ratio of intensities of two waves are given by 4: 1. Then ratio of the amplitudes of the two waves is (1991)

(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1: 2
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:4

86. In Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are placed 0.90 mm apart and fringe are observed one metre away. If it produces second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from central fringe, the wavelength of monochromatic light is used would be (1991)

(a) 60 x 10^-4 cm
(b) 10 x 10^-4 cm
(c) 10 x 10^-5 cm
(d) 6 x 10^-5 cm

87. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole apparatus is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3 , without disturbing the geometrical arrangement, the new fringe width will be (1990)

(a) 0.30 mm
(b) 0.40 mm
(c) 0.53 mm
(d) 450 microns

88. The Young’s double slit experiment is perfonned with blue and with green light of wavelengths 4360 Å and 5460 Å respectively. If x is the distance of 4th maxima from the central one, then (1990)

89. Interference is possible in (1989)

(a) light waves only
(b) sound waves only
(c) both light and sound waves
(d) neither light nor sound waves

90. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a prism of small angle A and emerge normally from opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of prism is μ, the angle of incidence i is nearely equal to (1989)

91. Which of the phenomenon is not common to sound and light waves ? (1988)

(a) Interference
(b) Diffraction
(c) Coherence
(d) Polarisation

92. Which one of the following phenomena is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wavefront ? (1988)

(a) Refraction
(b) Reflection
(c) Diffraction
(d) Origin of spectra

93. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of lens when immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25 will be (1988)

(a) 10 cm
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 7.5 cm

ANSWERS

EXPLANATIONS

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Electromagnetic Waves

May 9, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Electromagnetic Waves

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions Chemistry Biology

1. The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it belong? (AIPMT 2015)
(a) Ultraviolet rays
(b) y-rays
(c) X-rays
(d) Infra-red rays

2. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (C = Velocity of light)

3. Light with an energy flux of 25 × 10⁴ W m^-2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm the average force exerted on the surface is (AIPMT 2014)
(a) 1.25 × 10⁶N
(b) 2.50 × 10⁶N
(c) 1.20 × 10^-6N
(d) 3.0 × 10^-6N

4. The condition under which a microwave oven ; heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is (NEET 2013)
(a) Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating.
(b) Infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven.
(c) The frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of the water molecules.
(d) The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules.

5. An electromagnetic wave of frequency u = 3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with relative permittivity
∈ = 4.0. Then (Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) Wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half.
(b) Wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged.
(c) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
(d) Wavelength is doubled and frequency unchanged.

6.The electric field associated with an’em wave in vacuum is given by E = i 40 cos (kz – 6 × 10⁸ t) where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave vector k is (Prelims 2012)
(a) 2 m^-1
(b) 0.5 m^-1
(c) 6 m^-1
(d) 3 m^-1

7. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to (Mains 2012)
(a) the speed of light in vacuum
(b) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
(c) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum
(d) unity

8. The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by (prelims 2011)

9. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is (Prelims 2011)
(a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(b) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(c) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
(d) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays

10. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves? (Prelims 2010)
(a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time.
(b) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors.
(c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.
(d) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.

11. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by E = 10 cos (107 t + k x)j V/m, where t and x are in seconds and metres respectively. It can be inferred that (Mains 2010)
(1) the wavelength λ is 188.4 m.
(2) the wave number k is 0.33 rad/m.
(3) the wave amplitude is 10 V/m.
(4) the wave is propagating along +x direction.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?
(a) (3) and (4)
(b) (1) and (2)
(c) (2) and (3)
(d) (l)and(3)

12. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented

13. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity e0 and permeability p0 is given by (prelims 2008)

14. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are (2007, 1994)
(a) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
(b) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
(c) in phase and perpendicular to each other
(d) in phase and parallel to each other.

16. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the following statements is true ? (2003)
(a) The radiation emitted is in the infra-red region
(b) The radiation is emitted only during the day
(c) The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters
(d) The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible

17. Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves ? (2003)
(a) X-rays
(b) y-rays
(c) P-rays
(d) heat rays

18. The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel to (2002)

19. What is the cause of Green house effect? (2002)
(a) infra-red rays
(b) ultra violet rays
(c) X-rays
(d) radio waves.

20. Biological importance of ozone layer is (2001)
(a) it stops ultraviolet rays
(b) ozone layer reduces green house effect
(c) ozone layer reflects radio waves
(d) ozone layer controls 02/H2 ratio in atmosphere.

21. The frequency order for y-rays (B), X-rays (A), UV rays (C) is (2000)
(a) B > A > C
(b) A > B > C
(c) C > B > A
(d) A > C > B.

22. Ozone layer blocks the radiations of wavelength (1999)
(a) more than 3 × 10^-7 m
(b) equal to 3 × 10^-7 m
(c) less than 3 × 10^-7 m
(d) all of these

23. Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz (1999)
(a) 4 × 10⁶ m
(b) 3 × 10⁶ m
(c) 2 × 10⁶ m ‘
(d) 5 × 10^-5 m

24. If e0 and p0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability in a free space, £ and p are the corresponding quantities in medium, the index and refraction of the medium is (1997)

25. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the smaller wavelength? (1994)
(a) X-rays
(b) y-rays
(c) UV waves
(d) microwaves.

26. A signal emitted by an antenna from a certain point can be received at another point of the surface in the form of (1993)
(a) sky wave
(b) ground wave
(c) sea wave
(d) both (a) and (b)

27. The structure of solids is investigated by using (1992)
(a) cosmic rays
(b) X-rays
(c) y-rays
(d) infra-red radiations

28. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited to observe a particle of radius 3 × 10⁴ cm is of the order of (1991)
(a) 10¹⁵
(b) 10¹⁴
(c) 10¹³
(d) 10¹²

29. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place (1990)
(a) thermionic emission
(b) X-rays emission
(c) photoelectric emission
(d) secondary emission

30. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the longest wavelength ? (1989)
(a) X-rays
(b) y-rays
(c) Microwaves
(d) Radiowaves

EXPLANATIONS

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

May 8, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions Chemistry Biology

1. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage source. Consider two situations (AIPMT 2015)
(a) When capacitor is air filled.
(b) When capacitor is mica filled.
Current through resistor is i and voltage across capacitor is V then

2. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown. The abed is a coil adjacent to the path of electron. What will be the direction of current, if any, induced in the coil? (AIPMT 2015)

3. A resistance ‘R’ draws power ‘P’ when conBected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes “Z” the power drawn will be (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)

4. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in the figure.
The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is (AIPMT 2014)

5. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6 A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are (AIPMT 2014)
(a) 300 V, 15 A
(b) 450 V, 15 A
(c) 450 V, 13.5 A
(d) 600 V, 15 A

6. A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is (NEET 2013)
(a) four times per revolution
(b) six times per revolution
(c) once per revolution
(d) twice per revolution

7. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when (NEET 2013)
(a) a capacitance of reactance X_c = X_L is included in the same circuit.
(b) an iron rod is inserted in the coil.
(c) frequency of the AC source is decreased.
(d) number of turns in the coil is reduced.

8. The primary of a transformer when connected to a dc battery of 10 Volt draws a current of 1 mA. The number of turns of the primary and secondary windings are 50 and 100 respectively. The voltage in the secondary and the current drawn by the cricuit in the secondary are respectively(Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) 20 V and 2.0 mA
(b) 10 V and 0.5 mA
(c) Zero volt and therefore no current
(d) 20 V and 0.5 mA

9. A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) 0.5 Wb
(b) 12.5 Wb
(c) zero
(d) 2 Wb

10. A coil of resistance 400 Ω is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux Φ (Wb) linked with the coil varies with time t (sec) as Φ = 50T² + 4. The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is (Prelims 2012)
(a) 0.5 A
(b) 0.1 A
(c) 2 A
(d) 1 A

11. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and ac voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again The power factor of the circuit is (Prelims 2012)

12. The current (I) in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure. (Prelims 2012)

Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil?

13. The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as (mains 2012)

14. In a coil of resistance 10 Q, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in weber is (Mains 2012)

(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 4

15. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both equal to 3 Ω, the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is (Prelims 2011)
(a) π/6
(b) π/4
(c) π /2
(d) zero

16. In an ac circuit an alternating voyage volts is connected to a capacitor of capacity 1 µF. The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is (Prelims 2011)
(a) 10 mA
(b) 100 mA
(c) 200 mA
(d) 20 mA

17. The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be (prelims 2011)

18. The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is (mains 2011)

19. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be (mains 2011)

20. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpen-dicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s^-1. The induced emf when the radius is 2 cm, is (Prelims 2010)
(a) 2 π µ V
(b) π µV
(c) π/2 µ V
(d) 2 µ V

21. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter v₁ and v₂ are 300 volts each. The reading of the voltmeter v₃ and ammeter A are respectively (prelims 2010)

(a) 150V,2.2A
(b) 220V,2.2A
(c) 220V,2.0A
(d) 100V,2.0A

22. A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is (Prelims 2010)
(a) 3.6 ampere
(b) 2.8 ampere
(c) 2.5 ampere
(d) 5.0 ampere

23. A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of v₁ The plates of the condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to v₂is (mains 2010)

24. A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x-y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, (Prelims 2009)
V = vi. The magnetic field is directed along the negative z axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out of the field region, will not remain constant for
(a) the circular and the elliptical loops
(b) only the elliptical loop
(c) any of the four loops
(d) the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops

25. Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an A.C. source of emf e is (prelims 2009)

26. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loon starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is (2009 prelims)
(a) 4.8 π µ V
(b) 0.8 π µ V
(c) 1.6 π µ V
(d) 3.2 π µ V

27. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10^-3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is (Prelims 2008)
(a) 1.0 henry
(b) 4.0 henry
(c) 2.5 henry
(d) 2.0 henry

28. In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. () and the current (i) at any instant arc given respectively by

29. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 1 / π (wb/m²) in such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60° with (prelims 2008)

30. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1 500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux Φ linked with the primary coil is given by Φ = Φ₀ + 4t where Φ is in webers, t is time in seconds and Φ₀ is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is (2007)
(a) 120 volts
(b) 220 volts
(e) 30 volts
(d) 90 volts.

31. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately (2007)
(a) 50%
(b) 90%
(c) 10%
(d) 30%.

32. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C= 10 µF andco= 1000 S^-1? (2007)
(a) 1 mH
(b) cannot be.calculated unless R is known
(c) 10 mH
(d) 100 mH.

33. A coil of inductive reactance 31 Ω has a resistance of 8 Ω. It is placed in series with a condenser of capacitative reactance 25 Ω. The combination is connected to an a.c. source of 110 V. The power factor of the circuit is (2006)
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.56
(c) 0.64
(d) 0.80

34. Two coils of self inductance 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is (2006)
(a) 16 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 4 mH.

35. The core of a transformer is laminated because (2006)
(a) ratio of voltage in primary and secondary may be increased
(b) energy losses due to eddy currents may be minimised
(c) the weight of the transformer may be reduced
(d) rusting of the core may be prevented.

36. A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of frequency l If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C, the frequency will be (2006)

37. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f The current leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is (2005)

38. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the closed loop as shown in the figure, an e.m.f V volt is induced in the loop. The work done (joule) in taking a charge 0 coulomb once along the loop is (2005)

(a) QV
(b) 2QV
(c) QV/ 2
(d) zero.

39. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is (2004)
(a) 5 seconds
(b) 1/5 seconds
(c) 40 seconds
(d) 20 seconds

40. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount ΔΦ in a time Δt. Then the total quantity of electric charge 0 that passes any point in the circuit during the time Δt is represented by (2004)

41. For a series LCR circuit the power loss at resonance is (2002)

42. For a coil having L = 2 mH, current flow through it is l = t² e^-1then, the time at which emf become zero \ (2001)
(a) 2 sec
(b) 1 sec
(c) 4 sec
(d) 3 sec.

43. A capacitor of capacity C has reactance X. If capacitance and frequency become double then reactance will be (2001)
(a) 4X
(b) X/ 2
(c) X/4
(d) 2X.

44. The value of quality factor is (2000)

45. In the circuit given in figure, 1 and 2 are ammeters. Just after key K is pressed to complete the circuit, the reading will be (1999)

(a) zero in 1, maximum in 2
(b) maximum in both 1 and 2
(c) zero in both 1 and 2
(d) maximum in 1, zero in 2

46. A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line and supplies a load of 2 ampere. The ratio of the primary and secondary windings is 1 : 25. The current in the primary is (1998)
(a) 15 A
(b) 50 A
(c) 25 A
(d) 12.5 A

47. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according to equation i = i₀ sin cot, where
i₀ = 10 A and co = 100 π rad/sec. The maximum value ofe.m.f. in the second coil is (1998)
(a) π
(b) 5π
(c) 2π
(d) 4π

48. The primary winding of a transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to an A.C. supply 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an output of (1997)
(a) 2 V, 50 Hz
(b) 2 V, 5 Hz
(c) 200 V, 50 Hz
(d) 200 V, 500 Hz.

49. In an a.c. circuit with phase voltage V and current 7, the power dissipated is

50. A metal ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet is (1996)
(a) more than g
(b) equal to g
(c) less than g
(d) either (a) or (c).

51. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing is 7=5 sin (1007 – TC/2) ampere and the potential difference is V = 200 sin (1007) volts. The power consumption is equal to * (1995)
(a) 20 W
(b) 0 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 40 W.

52. When the key K is pressed at time t = 0, then which of the following statement about the current 7 in the resistor AB of the given circuit is true?

(a) I oscillates between 1 mA and 2 mA
(b) at t = 0, I=2 mA and with time it goes to imA
(c) i = ImA at all t
(d) i =2 mA at all t.

53. A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is moved with a speed of 7 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity 0.9 Wb/m². The induced e.m.f. across the conductor is (1995)
(a) 5.04 V
(b) 25.2 V
(c) 1.26 V
(d) 2.52 V.

54. The current 7 in an A.C. circuit inductance coil varies with time according to the graph given below.

Which one of the following graphs gives the variation of voltage with time ? (1994)

55. In an A.C. circuit, 7nns and 70 are related as (1994)

56. An series L-C-R circuit is connected to a source of A.C. current. At resonance, the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit, is (1994)

57. Two cables of copper are of equal lengths. One of them has a single wire of area of cross-section A, while other has 10 wires of cross-sectional area .4/10 each. Give their suitability for transporting A.C. and D.C. (1994)
(a) only multiple strands for A.C., either for D.C.
(b) only multiple strands for A.C., only single strand for D.C.
(c) only single strand for D.C., either for A.C.
(d) only single strand for A.C., either for D.C.

58. If N is the number of turns in a coil, the value of self inductance varies as (1993)
(a) N⁰
(b) N
(c) N²
(d) N^-2

59. What is the self-inductance of a coil which produces 5 mV when the current changes from 3 ampere to 2 ampere in one millisecond? (1993)
(a) 5000 henry
(b) 5 mili-henry
(c) 50 henry
(d) 5 henry

60. The time constant of C-R circuit is (1992)
(a) 1 /CR
(b) C/R
(c) CR
(d) R/C

61. The total charge, induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depend on (1992)
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only

62. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25 sq. cm has a resistance of 100 Ω. If a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of coil changes at a rate of 1000 tesla per second, the current in the coil is (1992)
(a) 1A
(b) 50 A
(c) 0.5 A
(d) 5 A

63. Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of (1991)
(a) energy
(b) energy and magnetic field
(c) charge
(d) magnetic field

64. If the number of turns per unit length of a coil of solenoid is doubled, the self-inductance of the solenoid will (1991)
(a) remain unchanged
(b) be halved
(c) be doubled
(d) become four times

65. A 100 millihenry coil carries a current of 1 A. Energy stored in its magnetic field is (1991)
(a) 0.5 J
(b) 1A
(c) 0.05 J
(d) 0.1 J

66. A magnetic field of 2 × 10^-2 T acts at right angles to a coil of area 100 cm², with 50 turns. The average e.m.f. induced in the coil is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field in t sec. The value of t is (1991)
(a) 10 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.01 s
(d) 1 s

67. The current in self inductance L = 40 mH is to be increased uniformly from 1 amp to 11 amp in 4 milliseconds. The e.m.f. induced in inductor during process is (1990)
(a) 100 volt
(b) 0.4 volt
(c) 4.0 volt
(d) 440 volt

68. An inductor may store energy in (1990)
(a) its electric field
(b) its coils
(c) its magnetic field
(d) both in electric and magnetic fields

69. In a region of magnetic induction B = 10^-2 tesla, a circular coil of radius 30 cm and resistance π² ohm is rotated about an axis which is perpendicular to the direction of B and which forms a diameter of the coil. If the coil rotates at 200 rpm the amplitude of the alternating current induced in the coil is (1988)
(a) 4 π²mA
(b) 30 mA
(c) 6 mA
(d) 200 mA

70. Eddy currents are produced when (1988)
(a) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field
(b) a metal is kept in steady magnetic field
(c) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
(d) through a circular coil, current is passed

EXPLANATIONS

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Solved Papers 2016 (Phase – II)

May 8, 2018 by Anthony Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Solved Papers 2016 (Phase – II)

Units and Measurement

1. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newtons gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length ?

Motion in a Straight Line

2. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by x_P(t) = (at+bt²) and x_Q(t) = (ft-t²). At what time do the cars have the same velocity ?

Motion in a Plane

3. In the given figure, a = 15 m s^-2 represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is

(a) 5 m s^-1(b) 0 m s^-1(c) 7 m s^-1(d) 2 m s^-1

Laws of Motion

4. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60° and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

Work, Energy and Power

5. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 m s^-1 strikes a wood block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result,’the centre of gravity of the block found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be

(a) 100 ms^-1
(b) 80 ms^-1(c) 120 ms^-1
(d) 160 ms^-1

6. Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m s^-1 and -0.3 m s^-1 respectively collide elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be

(a) -0.5 ms^-1 and 0.3 ms^-1(b) 5 ms^-1 and -0.3 ms^-1(c) -0.3 ms^-1 and 0.5 ms^-1(d) 3 ms^-1 and 0.5 ms^-1

7. A particle moves from a point (-2i + 5j) to (4 j + 3k) when a force of (4i + 3 j) N is applied. How much work has been done by the force ?

(a) 8 J
(b) 11 J
(c) 5 J
(d) 2 J

System of Particles and Rotational Motion

8. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia I_A and I_B (I_B > l_A) have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If L_A and L_B be their angular momenta respectively, then

(a) L_A = L_B/2
(b) L_A = 2L_B(c) L_B > L_A
(d) L_A > L_B

9. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (E_sphere / E_Cylinder) will be

(a) 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 5
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 3 : 1

10. A light rod of length l has two masses m_l and nu attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is

Gravitation

11. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g( acceleration due to gravity) is shown by

12. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satellite in terms of g₀, the value of acceleration due to gravity at the earths surface, is .

Properties of Matter

13. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm x 2 cm) to (5 cm x 4 cm). If the work done is 3 x 10^-4 J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

(a) 0.250 N m^-1
(b) 0.125 N m^-1(c) 2 N m^-1
(d) 8.0 N m^-1

14. Three liquids of densities ρ₁, ρ₂ and ρ₃ (with ρ₁ > ρ₂ > ρ₃), having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ₁, θ₂and θ₃ obey

15. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at 100 °C, while the other one is at 0 °C. If the two bodies are brought into contact, then, assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is

(a) 50 °C
(b) more than 50 °C
(c) less than 50 °C but greater than 0 °C
(d) 0°C

16. A body cools from a temperature 3 T to 2 T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newtons law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes will be

Thermodynamics and Kinetic Theory

17. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process described by (he equation PV³ = constant). The heat capacity of the gas during this process is

(a) (3/2) R
(b) (5/2) R
(c) 2R
(d) R

18. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t₂ °C and the room temperature is t₁ °C. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be

19. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas ?

(a) P/(kT)
(b) Pm/(kT)
(c) P/(kTV)
(d) mkT

Oscillations

20. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is

(a) 3/4
(b) 4/3
(c) 16/9
(d) 9/16

Waves

21. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be

(a) L
(b) 2L
(c) L/2
(d) 4L

22. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n- 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

Electrostatics

23. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2 x 10⁵ N C^-1. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

(a) 8 mC
(b) 2 mC
(c) 5 mC
(d) 7 μC

24. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constants A:k₁, k₂, k₃ and k₄ as shown in the figure. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

Current Electricity

25. The potential difference (V_A – V_B) between the points A and B in the given figure is

(a) -3V
(b) +3V
(c) +6V
(d) +9V

26. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is

(a) 230 Ω
(b) 46 Ω
(c) 26 Ω
(d) 13 Ω

Moving Charges and Magnetism

27. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be

(a) nB
(b) n²B
(c) 2nB
(d) 2n²B

28. An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 x 10^-2 If the value of elm is 1.76 x 10¹¹ C kg^-1, the frequency of revolution of the electron is

(a) 1 GHz
(b) 100 MHz
(c) 62.8 MHz
(d) 6.28 MHz

Magnetism and Matter

29. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is

Electromagnetic induction and Alternating Current

30. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for communication ?

(a) R = 20 Ω, L =5 H, C = 35 μF
(b) R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45 μF
(c) R = 15 Ω, L =5 H, C = 30 μF
(d) R = 25 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45 μF

31. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate dB/dt. Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure. Then the e.m.f. generated is

32. The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

(a) 0.4
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.8
(d) 1.0

Electromagnetic Waves

33. A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100 Ω reactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is

(a) 2.2 A
(b) 11 A
(c) 4.4 A
(d) 11 √2 A

Optics

34. Two identical glass (μ_g = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water (μ_w = 4/3). The focal length of the combination is

(a) f/3
(b) f
(c) 4f/3
(d) 3f/4

35. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 16

36. The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the

37. A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

(a) convex, +2.25 diopter
(b) concave, -0.25 diopter
(c) concave, -0.2 diopter
(d) convex, +0.15 diopter

38. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 x 10^-5 cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is

(a) 0.10 cm
(b) 0.25 cm
(c) 0.20 cm
(d) 0.15 cm

Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

39. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength A fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength (λ₀) of the emitted X-ray is

40. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is

(a) +3 V
(b) +4 V
(c) -1 V
(d) -3 V

Atoms and Nuclei

41. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3^rd orbit to the 2^nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ. When it jumps from the 4^th orbit to the 3^rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be

42. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is

(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60

Semiconductor Electronics: Materials. Devices and Simple Circuits

43. For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 kΩ is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 kΩ, then the input signal voltage is

(a) 10 mV
(b) 20 mV
(c) 30 mV
(d) 15 mV

44. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure. The current flowing through the resistance R₁ will be