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NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Magnetism and Matter

May 8, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Magnetism and Matter

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions Chemistry Biology

1. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 Weber/ m². The coil carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be (AIPMT 2015)
(a) 0.24 Nm
(b) 0.12Nm
(c) 0.15Nm
(d) 0.20 Nm

2. Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole moment m . Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment? (AIPMT 2014)

(a) (1)
(b) (2)
(c) (3)
(d) (4)

3. A current loop in a magnetic field (NETT 2013)
(a) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable.
(b) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable.
(c) experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non uniform in all orientations.
(d) can be in equilibrium in one orientation.

4. A bar magnet of length ‘l’ and magnetic dipole moment ‘AT is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be (neet 2013)

5. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed at right angles to a magnetic induction B. If a force F is experienced by each pole of the Viagnet, the length of the magnet will be (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) MB/F
(b) BF/M
(c) MF/B
(d) F/MB

6. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It (Prelims 2012)
(a) will become rigid showing no movement
(b) will stay in any position
(c) will stay in north-south direction only
(d) will stay in east-west direction only

7. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires >/3J of work to turn it through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be (Mains 2012)

8. There are four light-weight-rod samples A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted (Prelims 2011)
(i) A is feebly repelled
(ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
(iv) D remains unaffected
Which one of the following is true?
(a) B is of a paramagnetic material
(b) C is of a diamagnetic material
(c) D is of a ferromagnetic material
(d) A is of a non-magnetic material

9. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 J T1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is in stable equilibrium when the potential energy is (Mains 2011)
(a) 0.064 J
(b) – 0.064 J
(c) zero
(d) – 0.082 J

10. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has (Prelims 2010)
(a) low retentivity and high coercive force
(b) high retentivity and high coercive force
(c) low retentivity and low coercive force
(d) high retentivity and low coercive force

11. A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes oscillations with a time period of 2 sec in earth’s horizontal magnetic field of 24 microtesla. When a horizontal field of 18 microtesla is produced opposite to the earth’s field by placing a current carrying wire, the new time period of magnet will be (Prelims 2010)
(a) Is
(b) 2 s
(c) 3 s
(d) 4 s

12. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is (Mains 2010)
(a) much greater than one
(b) I
(c) between zero and one
(d) equal to zero

13. Two identical bar magnets are fixed witlrtheir centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure (Mains 2010)

The force on the charge Q is
(a) zero
(b) directed along OP
(c) directed along PO
(d) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

14. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is (Prelims 2009)
(a) repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole
(b) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
(c) attracted by both the poles
(d) repelled by both the poles

15. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 × 10⁴ J t^-1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 x 10^-4 T exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° from the field is (Prelims 2009)
(a) 12 J
(b) 6 J
(c) 2 J
(d) 0.6 J

16. Curie temperature above which (Prelims 2008, 2006)
(a) paramagnetic material ‘ becomes ferromagnetic material
(b) ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
(c) ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material
(d) paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material

17. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show (2007)
(a) anti ferromagnetism
(b) no magnetic property
(c) diamagnetism
(d) paramagnetism.

18. A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment p is given by (2007)
(a) qvR²
(b) qvR²/2
(c) qvR
(d) qvR/2.

19. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and ferromagnetic material are denoted by \id, \ip and pf respectively, then (2005)

20. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side L is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque * acts on it, the side l of the triangle is (2005)

21. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves (2003)
(a) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field
(b) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(c) perpendicular to the field
(d) in none of the above directions

22. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic ‘ susceptibility of a substance at an absolute temperature T is proportional to (2003)
(a) 1 / T
(b) T
(c) 1 / T²
(d) T²
23. A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth’s magnetic , field with a period T. What happens to its period and motion if its mass is quadrupled ? (2003, 1994)
(a) motion remains simple harmonic with time period = T / 2
(b) motion remains S.H.M with time period = 2 T
(c) motion remains S.H.M with time period = 4 T
(d) motion remains S.H.M and period remains nearly constant

24. Two bar magnets having same geometry-with magnetic moments M and 2M, are firstly placed in such a way that their similar poles are same side then its time period of oscillation is T\. Now the polarity of one of the magnet is reversed then time period of oscillation is T2, then (2002)
(a) T₁ < T₂
(b) T₁ = T₂
(c) T₁ > T₂
(d) T₂ = oo.

25. Among which the magnetic susceptibility does not depend on the temperature? (2001)
(a) diamagnetism
(b) paramagnetism
(c) ferromagnetism
(d) ferrite.

26. Tangent galvanometer is used to measure (2001)
(a) potential difference
(b) current
(c) resistance
(d) charge.

27. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is (1999)
(a) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole
(b) repelled by the poles
(c) attracted by the poles
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole

28. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M , is placed in a magnetic field of induction B ) The torque exerted on it is ‘ (1999)

29. For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external magnetic field, it should be (1998)
(a) surrounded with fine copper sheet
(b) placed inside an iron can
(c) wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
(d) placed inside an aluminium can.

30. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two parts of equal length. The magnetic moment of each part will be (1997)
(a) M
(b) 2M
(c) zero
(d) 0.5 M.

31. The work done in turning a. magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°. The value of n is given by (1995)
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/4
(c) 2
(d) 1.

EXPLANATIONS

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Solved Papers 2016 (Phase – I)

May 8, 2018 by Anthony Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Solved Papers 2016 (Phase – I)

Motion in a Straight Line

1. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt², where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1 s and 2 s is

Motion in a Plane

2. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is

(a) 45°
(b) 180°
(c) 0°
(d) 90°

3. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by $\xrightarrow { r }$ = cos ωt x+ sin ωt y , where co is a constant.
Which of the following is true?

(a) Velocity of perpendicular to $\xrightarrow { r }$ and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
(b) Velocity is perpendicular to $\xrightarrow { r }$ and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
(c) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to $\xrightarrow { r }$ .
(d) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to $\xrightarrow { r }$ .

Laws of Motion

4. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μ_s. The maximum safe velocity on this road is

Work, Energy and Power

5. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 x 10^-4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?

(a) 0.18 m/s²
(b) 0.2 m/s²(c) 0.1 m/s²
(d) 0.15 m/s²

6. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force $\xrightarrow { F }$ = (2t i + 3t² j )N, where i and j are unit vectors along x and y What power will be developed by the force at the time t?

(a) (2t³ + 3t⁴) W
(b) (2t³ + 3t⁵) W
(c) (2t² + 3t³) W
(d) (2t² + 4t⁴) W

7. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?

System of Particles and Rotational Motion

8. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?

(a) Both reach at the same time
(b) Depends on their masses
(c) Disk(d) Sphere

9. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?

(a) 11 MR²/32
(b) 9 MR² /32
(c) 15 MR²/32
(d) 13 MR²/32

10. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s^-2. Its net acceleration in m s^-2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately

(a) 6.0
(b) 3.0
(c) 8.0
(d) 7.0

Gravitation

11. At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are -5.4 x 10⁷ J kg^-2 and 6.0 m s^-2 respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.

(a) 1400 km
(b) 2000 km
(c) 2600 km
(d) 1600 km

12. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (v_e) to the escape velocity at a planet (v_p) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is

(a) 1:4
(b) 1:√2
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:2√2

Properties of Matter

13. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α₁, and α₂. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l₁ and l₂ If (l₂ – l₁) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?

(a) α₁²l₂ = α₂²l₁
(b) α₁l₁ = α₂l₂(c) α₁l₂ = α₂l₁
(d) α₁l₂²= α₂²l₁²

14. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of theTieat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 x 10⁵ J/ kg and g= 10 N/kg]

(a) 136 km
(b) 68 km
(c) 34 km
(d) 544 km

15. A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K.
The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U₁ at wavelength 500 nm is U₂ and that at 1000 nm is U₃. Wien’s constant, b = 2.88 x 10⁶ nmK. Which of the following is correct?

(a) U₁> U₂
(b) U₂ > U₁(c) U₁ = 0
(d) U₃ = 0

16. Two non-mixing liquids of densities p and np (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL(p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to

(a) {2 + (n – 1)p}p
(b) {1 + (n – 1)p}p
(c) {1 + (n+ 1)p}p
(d) {2 + (n+ 1)p}p

Thermodynamics and Kinetic Theory

17. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then

(a) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
(b) Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
(c) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
(d) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.

18. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 m s^-1 at 27°C and 1.0 x 10⁵ N m^-2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C and 0.05 x 10⁵ N m^-2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in m s^-1 is

19. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)

(a) 236.5 W
(b) 2365 W
(c) 2.365 W
(d) 23.65 W

Waves

20. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15 ms^-1 . Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms^-1)

(a) 838 Hz
(b) 885 Hz
(c) 765 Hz
(d) 800 Hz

21. An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is

(a) 150 cm
(b) 200 cm
(c) 66.7 cm
(d) 100 cm

22. A uniform rope of length L and mass m₁ hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m₂ is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ₁ is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ₂. The ratio λ₂/λ₁ is

Electrostatics

23. A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is

(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 0%
(d) 20%

24. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d < < l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as

(a) v ∝ x ^-1/2
(b) v ∝ x^-1(c) v ∝ x^1/2
(d) v ∝ x

Current Electricity

25. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is

(a) 3 : 4
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 5 : 1
(d) 5 : 4

26. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt², where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is

Moving Charges and Magnetism

27. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B’, at radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2

28. A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be

Magnetism and Matter

29. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for

(a) ferromagnetic material only
(b) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
(c) diamagnetic material only
(d) paramagnetic material only

Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

30. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is

(a) 76 W
(b) 89 W
(c) 51 W
(d) 67 W

31. A small signal voltage V(t) = V₀ sincof is applied across an ideal capacitor C

(a) Current I(f) is in phase with voltage V(t).
(b) Current I(f) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.
(c) Current I(f), lags voltage V(t) by 90°.
(d) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.

32. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 x 10^-3 The self-inductance of the solenoid is

(a) 2 H
(b) 1 H
(c) 4 H
(d) 3H

Electromagnetic Waves

33. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?

(a) A chargeless particle
(b) An accelerating charge
(c) A charge moving at constant velocity
(d) A stationary charge

Optics

34. Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]

(a) A —> p and s; B —> q and r; C —> q and s; D—>q and r
(b) A —> i and s; B -> q and s; C —> q and r; D —>p and s
(c) A —> q and r; B -> q and r; C —> q and s; D —> p and s
(d) A —> p and r; B —> p and s; C —> p and q; D-> r and s

35. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 A is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of

36. The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I₀. Distance between two slits is d = 5a, where X is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d?

37. A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance .

(a) 50.0 cm
(b) 54.0 cm
(c) 37.3 cm
(d) 46.0 cm

38. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are

Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

39. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is

40. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential V is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic 4 surface is

(a) 5/2 λ
(b) 3λ
(c) 4λ
(d) 5λ

Atoms and Nuclei

41. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10⁷ m^-1 the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be

(a) 0.25 x 10⁷m^-1
(b) 2.5 x 10⁷m^-1
(c) 0.025 x 10⁴m^-1
(d) 0.5 x 10⁷m^-1

42. When an α-particle of mass m moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as

Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

43. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is

(a) A= 1,B= 1,C = 0
(b) A=1,B = 0,C=1
(c) A = 0,B=1,C = 0
(d) A= 1,B = 0,C=0

44. A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be

(a) 4,4
(b) 4,3.69
(c) 4,3.84
(d) 3.69,3.84

45. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is

(a) 10^-1 A
(b) 10^-3A
(c) 0 A
(d) 10^-2 A

ANSWERS

EXPLANATIONS

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Moving Charges and Magnetism

May 8, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Moving Charges and Magnetism

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions Chemistry Biology

1. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, moving at right angles to the field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the energy acquired by the alpha particle will be (AIPMT 2015)
(a) 1.5 MeV
(b) 1 MeV
(c) 4 MeV
(d) 0.5 MeV

2. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n rotations per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre has magnitude (AIPMT 2015 ,Cancelled)

3. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic field at point O is (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)

4. A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long straight wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity ‘V. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)

5. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be (AIPMT 2014)

6. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that O is their common point for the two. The wires carry I₁ and I₂ currents, respectively. Point P is lyiAg at distance d from O along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point P will be (AIPMT 2014)

7. When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed v₀ it moves with an initial acceleration 3a₀ toward west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are (NEET 2013 )

8. A long straight wire carries a certain current and produces a magnetic field 2 × 10^-4 Wb m^-2 at a perpendicular distance of 5 cm from the wire. An electron situated at 5 cm from the wire moves with a velocity 10⁷ m/s towards the wire along perpendicular to it. The force experienced by the electron will be (charge on electron 1.6 × 10^-19 C) (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) 3.2 N
(b) 3.2 × 10^-16N
(c) 1.6 × 10^-16N
(d) zero

9. A circular coil ABCD carrying a current “i” is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic force on the segment AB is $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$ , the force on the remaining segment BCDA is (Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) – $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$
(b) 3 $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$
(c) – 3 $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$
(d) $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$

10. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents flowing in them are I and 21, respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the centre will be (Prelims 2012)

11. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range. The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be (Prelims 2012)
(a) 0.001
(b) 0.01
(c) 1
(d) 0.05

12. An alternating electric field, of frequency u, is applied across the dees (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being used to accelerate protons (mass = m). The operating magnetic field (B) used in the cyclotron and the kinetic energy (A) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given by (Prelims 2012)

13. A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What should be the energy of an a-particle to describe a circle of same radius in the same field? (Mains 2012)
(a) 2 MeV
(b) 1 MeV
(c) 0.5 MeV
(d) 4 MeV

14. A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is F, the force on- the arm AC is (Prelims 2011)

15. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along the direction of fields, then the electron (Prelims 2011)
(a) will turn towards right of direction of motion
(b) speed will decrease
(c) speed will increase
(d) will turn towards left of direction of motion

16. A galvanometer of resistance, G, is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is (Mains 2011)

17. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform lfequency/Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the center of the ring is (Mains 2011, Prelims 2010)

18. A square loop, carrying a teady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current ( at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience (Mains 2011)

(a) a net attractive force towards the conductor
(b) a net repulsive force away from the conductor
(c) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane
(d) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane

19. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a lull scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be (Prelims 2010)
(a) 900 Ω
(b) 1800 Ω
(c) 500 Ω
(d) 1000 Ω

20. A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop is (Prelims 2010)
(a) 3 $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$
(b) – $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$
(c) -3 $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$
(d) $\overset { \rightarrow }{ F }$

21. A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius R, one lying in the x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i. The resultant magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at their common centre is (mains 2010)

22. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10^-4 m^-2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 × 10^-2 tesla making an angle of 30° with the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be (Mains 2010)
(a) 3 × 10^-3Nm
(b) 1.5 × 10^-3Nm
(c) 1.5 × 10^-2N m
(d) 3 × 10^-2Nm

23. A particle having a mass of 10^-2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10^-8C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 10⁵ ms^-1 in the presence of electric field £ and magnetic field B. To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that (Mains 2010)
(1) B should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and E should be along the direction of velocity
(2) Both B and E should be along the direction of velocity
(3) Both B and E are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
(4) B should be along the direction of velocity and £ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity
Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible?
(a) (1) and (3)
(b) (3) and (4)
(c) (2) and (3)
(d) (2) and (4)

24. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 Ω shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by (Prelims 2009)
(a) putting in series a resistance of 15 Ω
(b) putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω
(c) putting in parallel a resistance of 15 Ω
(d) putting in parallel a resistance of 240 Ω

25. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge-2 µ.C in a magnetic field of 2 T acting in y direction, when the particle velocity is is (Prelims 2009)
(a) 4 N in z direction
(b) 8 N in y direction
(c) 8 N in z direction
(d) 8 N in – z direction

26. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle moves with constant speed v in a circle of radius R. The time period of rotation of the particle (Prelims 2009, 2007)
(a) depends on R and not on v
(b) is independent of both v and R
(c) depends on both v and R
(d) depends on v and not on R

27. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction j). After 3 seconds the kinetic energy of the particle will be (Prelims 2008)
(a) T
(b) 4T
(c) 3 T
(d) 2 T

28. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F₁ F₂ and F₃ respectively and are in the plane of the paper and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is (Prelims 2008)

29. A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω is connected to a battery of 3 V along with a resistance of 2950 Ω in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series should be (Prelims 2008)
(a) 6050 Ω
(b) 4450 Ω
(c) 5050 Ω
(d) 5550 Ω

30. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is (2007)
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 0.2 Ω
(c) 2 k Ω
(d) 20 Ω

31. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B , the force on it is non-zero. This implies that
(a) angle between is either zero or 180°
(b) angle between is necessarily 90°
(c) angle between can have any value other than 90°
(d) angle between can have any value other than zero and 180°. (2006)

32. Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius Of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. What potential difference in volts should be applied across them so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same? (2006)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6.

33. A very long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant when a charge +Q at point P has velocity $\overset { \rightarrow }{ V }$ , as shown, the force on the charge is (2005)

34. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field 5 at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to (2005)

35. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 × 10^-4 ampere gives a deflection of one division. To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25 volts, it should be connected with a resistance of (2004)
(a) 2500 Ω as a shunt
(b) 2450 Ω as a shunt
(c) 2550 Ω in series
(d) 2450 Ω in series

36. To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter one should connect a (2004, 2002)
(a) high resistance in series with galvanometer
(b) low resistance in series with galvanometer
(c) high resistance in parallel with galvanometer
(d) low resistance in parallel with galvanometer.

37. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the (2003)
(a) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(b) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(c) acceleration remains unchanged
(d) velocity remains unchanged

38. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is (2003)
(a) B / 2
(b) B
(c) 2 B
(d) 4 B

39. A charge q moves in a region where electric field and magnetic field both exist, then force on it is (2002)

40. The magnetic field of given length of wire for single turn coil at its centre is B then its value for two turns coil for the same wire is (2002)
(a) B/4
(b) B/2
(c) 45
(d) 25.

41. If number of turns, area and current through a coil is given by n, A and i respectively then its magnetic moment will be (2001)

42. An electron having mass m and kinetic energy E enter in uniform magnetic field 5 perpendicularly, then its frequency will be (2001)

43. The magnetic field at centre, P will be (2000)

44. Magnetic field due to 0.1 A current flowing through a circular coil of radius 0.1 m and 1000 turns at the centre of the coil is (1999)
(a) 6.28 × 10^-4 T
(b) 4.31 × 10^-2 T
(c) 2 × 10^-1 T
(d) 9.81 × 10^-4 T

45. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by the another wire of 1 mm diameter carrying the same current. The strength of the magnetic field far away is (1999, 97)
(a) one-quarter of the earlier value
(b) one-half of the earlier value
(c) twice the earlier value
(d) same as the earlier value

46. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current, then produced magnetic field will be (1999)
(a) both inside and outside the pipe
(b) outside the pipe only
(c) inside the pipe only
(d) neither inside nor outside the pipe

47. Magnetic field intensity at the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of 2 A, is (1999)
(a) 3 × 10^-4 T
(b) 1.25 × 10^-4 T
(c) 0.5 × 10^-5 T
(d) 4 × 10⁶ T

48. A charge having elm equal to 108 C/kg and with velocity 3 x 105 m/s enters into a uniform magnetic field B = 0.3 tesla at an angle 30° with direction of field. The radius of curvature will be (1999)
(a) 0.01 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c) 1 cm
(d) 2 cm.

49. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 metre. Both of them carry one ampere of current. The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is (1998)
(a) 5 × 10^-8 N/m
(b) 2 × 10^-8 N/m
(c) 2 × 10^-7 N/m
(d) 10^-7 N/m

50. A galvanometer having a resistance of 9 ohm is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohm. If the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be (1998)
(a) 0.2 amp
(b) 0.8 amp
(c) 0.25 amp
(d) 0.5 amp

51. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then, the ratio of the magnetic inductions at their centres will be (1998)
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 2

52. Two parallel wires in free space are 10 cm apart and each carries a current of 10 A in the same direction. The force exerted by one wire on the other, per metre length is (1997)
(a) 2 × 10^-4N, repulsive
(b) 2 × 10^-7N, repulsive
(c) 2 × 10^-4N, attractive
(d) 2 × 10^-7N, attractive.

53. A positively charged particle moving due East enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. This particle will (1997)
(a) move in a circular path with a decreased speed
(b) move in a circular path with a uniform speed
(c) get deflected in vertically upward direction
(d) move in circular path with an increased speed.

54. Tesla is the unit of (1997, 88)
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) electric flux
(d) magnetic flux.

55. Two equal electric currents are flowing perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. AB and CD are perpendicular to each other and symmetiically placed with respect to the currents. Where do we expect the resultant magnetic field to be zero? (1996)

(a) On CD
(b) OnAB
(c) On both OD and 80
(d) On both AB and CD

56. The magnetic field d $\overset { \rightarrow }{ B }$ due to a small current element d $\overset { \rightarrow }{ L }$ at a distance r and element carrying current i is (1996)

57. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform field at magnetic induction 10^-4 Wb m² (= 1.0 gauss), the orbital radius of electron is (1996)
(a) 11 cm
(b) 18 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 16cm.

58. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having electric and magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm 1 and 0.5 T at right angles to the direction of motion of the electrons. What is the velocity of the electrons? (1996)
(a) 8 ms^-1
(b) 5.5 ms^-1
(c) 20 ms^-1
(d) 40 ms^-1.

59. A circular loop of area 0.01 m² carrying a current of 10 A, is held perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity 0.1 T. The torque acting on the loop is (1994)
(a) 0.001 Nm
(b) 0.8 Nm
(c) zero
(d) 0.01 N m.

60. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will (1993)
(a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path Y-Z plane
(c) retard along X-axis
(d) moving along a helical path around X-axis

61. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field (1993)
(a) torque is formed
(b) e.m.f is induced
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) none of these

62. To convert a galvanometer into a ammeter, one needs to connect a (1992)
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in series

63. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is (1992)
(a) 2.4 N
(b) 1.2 N
(c) 3.0 N
(d) 2.0 N

64. The magnetic field at a distance r from a long wire carrying current i is 0.4 tesla. The magnetic field at a distance 2r is (1992)
(a) 0.2 tesla
(b) 0.8 tesla
(c) 0.1 tesla
(d) 1.6 tesla

65. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2 cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be (1991)
(a) 2.0 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 1.0 cm

66. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with the same B is (1991)
(a) 25 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c) 200 keV
(d) 100 keV

67. The magnetic induction at a pont point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a tong current carrying wire is 10^-3 T. The field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be (1990)
(a) 3.33 × 10^-4 T
(b) 1.11 × 10^-4 T
(c) 33 × 10^-3 T
(d) 9 × 10^-3 T

68. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of (1989)
(a) electric field only
(b) magnetic field only
(c) dielectric strength
(d) both (a) and (b)

69. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its plane becomes (1988)
(a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
(b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the magnetic field
(c) parallel to the magnetic field
(d) perpendicular to magnetic field

EXPLANATIONS

7. (d)

18. (a)

20. (b)

23. (c)

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Solved Papers 2017

May 7, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Solved Papers 2017

Units and Measurement

1. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and $\frac { { e }^{ 2 } }{ 4\pi { \epsilon }_{ 0 } }$ is [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge]

Motion in a Straight Line

2. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time t₁. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t₂. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be

Motion in a Plane

3. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t – t² and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in metres and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is

(a) 5 m s^-2
(b) -4 m s^-2(c) -8 m s^-2
(d) 0

Laws of Motion

4. Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively

(a) g/3, g
(b) g,g
(c) g/3, g/3
(d) g, g/3

5. One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass m and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed V, the net force on the particle (directed towards centre) will be (T represents the tension in the string)

Work, Energy and Power

6. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 ms^-1. Take constant with a value 10 m s^-2. The work done by the
(i) gravitational force and the
(ii) resistive force of air is

(a) (i) 1.25 J (ii) -8.25 J
(b) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
(c) (i) 10 J (ii) -8.75 J
(d) (i) -10 J (ii) -8.25 J

System of Particles and Rotational Motion

7. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?

(a) 0.25 rad s^-2
(b) 25 rad s^-2(c) 5 ms^-2
(d) 25 m s^-2

8. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities ω₁ and ω₂ They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is

9. Which of the following statements are correct?

Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.
Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero.
A couple on a body produces both translational and rotational motion in a body.
Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a large load.

(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (4)
(d) (2) and (4)

Gravitation

10. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of earth. Then a

(a) d = 1 km
(b) d = 3/2 km
(c) d = 2 km
(d) d = 1/2 km

11. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will

(a) move towards each other.
(b) move away from each other.
(c) will become stationary.
(d) keep floating at the same distance between them.

Properties of Matter

12. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K₁, and K₂. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be

13. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be

(a) 450
(b) 1000
(c) 1800
(d) 225

14. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional decrease in radius is

15. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is

(a) 425 kg m^-3
(b) 800 kg m^-3(c) 928 kg m^-3
(d) 650 kg m^-3

Thermodynamics and Kinetic Theory

16. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram.

Match the followin

	Column-1		Column-2
p.	Process I	A.	Adiabatic
Q.	Process II	B.	Isobaric
R.	Process III	C.	Isochoric
S.	Process IV	D.	Isothermal

(a) P—>C, Q—>A, R—»D, S—»B
(b) P->C, Q->D, R-»B, S->A
(c) P—»D, Q—>B, R—>A, S—>C
(d) P->A, Q—>C, R—»D, S—»B

17. A carnot engine having an efficiency of 1/10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is

(a) 90 J
(b) 99 J
(c) 100 J
(d) 1 J

18. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of 0₂ and 4 moles of Ar at temperature Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

(a) 15 RT
(b) 9 RT
(c) 11 RT
(d) 4 RT

Oscillations

19. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1:2:3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is k’. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k”. Then k’: k” is

(a) 1:9
(b) 1 : 11
(c) 1 : 14
(d) 1:6

20. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is

Waves

21. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

(a) 20 Hz
(b) 30 Hz
(c) 40 Hz
(d) 10 Hz

22. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m s^-1 and 16.5 ms^-1 The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m s^-1]

(a) 361 Hz
(b) 411 Hz
(c) 448 Hz
(d) 350 Hz

Electrostatics

23. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system

(a) decreases by a factor of 2
(b) remains the same
(c) increases by a factor of 2
(d) increases by a factor of 4

24. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is -e, the other is (e + Δe). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than’atomic size) apart is zero, then Δe is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen m_h = 1.67 x 10^–²⁷ kg]

(a) 10^–²³ C
(b) 10^–³⁷C
(c) 10^–⁴⁷C
(d) 10^–²⁰ C

25. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials.

A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram.

(a) In all the four cases the work done is the same.
(b) Minimum work is required to move q in figure (I).
(c) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (II).
(d) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (III).

Current Electricity

26. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new resistance will be

27. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of EMF because the method involves

(a) potential gradients
(b) a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer
(c) a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
(d) cells

Moving Charges and Magnetism

28. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current T along the same direction as shown in figure. Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire ‘B’ is given by

29. If θ₁and θ₂ be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of dip 0 is given by

30. A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 μA and subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the torque is

(a) 4.55 pj
(b) 2.3 pj
(c) 1.15 pj
(d) 9.1 pj

Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current

31. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 x 10⁴ turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10 π² Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is

(a) 16 μC
(b) 32 μC
(c) 16 π μC
(d) 32 π μC

32. Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 Ω each, two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf ε = 18 V. The current i through the battery just after the switch closed is

(a) 0.2 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 0 A
(d) 2 mA

Electromagnetic Waves

33. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Enns = 6 V m^-1. The peak value of the magnetic field is

(a) 2.83 x 10^–⁸ T
(b) 0.70 x 10^–⁸ T
(c) 4.23 x 10^–⁸T
(d) 1.41 x I0^-8T

Optics

34. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths λ₁ = 4000 Å and λ₂ = 6000 Å is

(a) 9 : 4
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 16 : 81
(d) 8 : 27

35. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8^th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5^th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

(a) 1.59
(b) 1.69
(c) 1.78
(d) 1.25

36. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just above the source When the mirror is rotated through a small angle θ, the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle θ is given by

37. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of second prism should be

(a) 6°
(b) 8°
(c) 10°
(d) 4°

38. Two polaroids P₁ and P₂ are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I₀ is incident on P₁. A third polaroid P₃ is kept in between P₁and P₂ such that its axis makes an angle 45° with that of P₁. The intensity of transmitted light through P₂ is

39. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (kelvin) and mass m, is

40. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 x 10^–¹⁰ m. The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 x 10^-10 m is [Given h = 4.14 x 10^–¹⁵ eV and c = 3 x 10⁸m s^–¹]

(a) = 0.6 x 10⁶ m s^–¹
(b) =61 x 10³ms^-1
(c) = 0.3 x 10⁶ m s^-1
(d) = 6 x 10⁵ m s^-1

Atoms and Nuclei

41. Radioactive material ‘A’ has decay constant ‘8 λ’ and material ‘B’ has decay constant ‘λ’. Initially they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material ‘B’ to that ‘A’ will be 1/e ?

42. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 0.5
(d) 2

Semiconductor Electronics: Materials. Devices and Simple Circuits

43. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 kΩ. If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 kΩ, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is

(a) 15 and 200
(b) 150 and 15000
(c) 20 and 2000
(d) 200 and 1000

44. The given electrical network is equivalent to

(a) OR gate
(b) NOR gate
(c) NOT gate
(d) AND gate

45. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?

ANSWERS

EXPLANATIONS

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Organic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques

May 3, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Organic Chemistry – Some Basic Principles and Techniques

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is (NEET 2017, 1999, 1993)
(a) chromatography
(b) crystallisation
(c) steam distillation
(d) sublimation.

2. The IUPAC name of the compound (NEET 2017)

3. The correct statement regarding electrophile is (NEET 2017)
(a) electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
(b) electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
(c) electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
(d) electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile.

4. Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism? (NEET II 2016)

(a) III only
(b) Both I and III
(c) Both I and II
(d) Both II and III

5. Which of the following biphenyls is optically active? (NEET I 2016)

7. Which of the following statements is not correct for a nucleophile? (2015)
(a) Ammonia is a nucleophile.
(b) Nucleophiles attack low density sites.
(c) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking.
(d) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid.

8.Which of the following is not the product of (2015)

9.Treatment of cyclopentanonemethyl

lithium gives which of the following species? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Cyclopentanonyl radical
(b) Cyclopentanonyl biradical
(c) Cyclopentanonyl anion
(d) Cyclopentanonyl cation

10. The total number of tt-bond electrons in the following structure is (2015, Cancelled)

(a)12
(b)16
(c)4
(d)8

11. Which of the following species contains equal number of σ- and π-bonds? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) (CN)₂
(b) CH₂(CN)₂
(c) HCO₃^–
(d) XeO₄

12.Given (2015, Cancelled)

Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?
(a) II and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and II
(d) I and III

13. Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place? (2015, Cancelled)

Medhavi Scholarship

14. In Duma’s method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is (2015, Cancelled)
(a) 16.76
(b) 15.76
(c) 17.36
(d) 18.20

15. Consider the following compounds :

Hyperconjugation occurs in (2015, Cancelled)
(a) III only
(b) I and III
(c) I only
(d) II only.

16. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as shown below has (2015, Cancelled)

(a) 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
(b) 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
(c) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
(d) 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond.

17.In which of the following compounds, the C—Cl bond ionisation shall give most stable carbonium ion? (2015, Cancelled)

18.In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H₂S0₄. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is (2014)
(a) 37.33
(b) 45.33
(c) 35.33
(d) 43.33

19. The radical,

is aromatic becauseit has (NEET 2013)
(a) 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
(b) 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
(c) 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
(d) 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons.

20. The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is (NEET 2013)

21.Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en- 5-ynoic acid is (NEET 2013)

22.Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating? (NEET 2013)
(a) — COOH
(b) — N0₂
(c) — C ≡ N
(d) — S0₃H

23. Arrange the following in increasing order of stability (Karnataka NEET 2013)

24. What is the hybridisation state of benzyl carbonium ion (Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) sp²
(b) spd²
(c) sp²d
(d) sp³

25. Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne’s test. The blue colour formed corresponds to which of the following formulae? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) Fe₃[Fe(CN)₆]₂
(b) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃
(c) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₂
(d) Fe₃[Fe(CN)₆]₃

26.Homolytic fission of the following alkanes forms (Karnataka NEET 2013)

27. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is (2012,1992)
(a) benzoic acid
(b) nitrobenzene
(c) toluene
(d) benzene

28. Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system? (2012)

29.Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear? (2011)
(a) CH₃ – CH=CH – CH₃
(b) CH₃-C≡C-CH₃
(c) CH₂=CH – CH₂ – C≡CH
(d) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃

30.Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent? (2011,2010)

31. The correct IUPAC name for the compound (2011)

(a) 4-ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene
(b) 3-ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
(c) 3-ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene
(d) 3-(1-ethylpropyl)hex-1-ene.

32. In Dumas’ method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm), (2011)
(a) 15.45
(b) 16.45
(c) 17.45
(d) 14.45

33. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following? (2011)

34. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HN0₃ while testing for halogens. By doing so it (2011)
(a) decomposes Na₂S and NaCN, formed
(b) helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(c) increases the solubility product of AgCl
(d) increases the concentration of N0₃^– ions

35. Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily? (mains 2011)

36. The IUPAC name of the following compound is (Mains 2011, 1998)

(a) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
(b) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentane
(c) trans-3 -iodo-4-chloro-3 -pentene
(d) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene.

37. Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature? (Mains 2010)

38. The IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH=CHC≡CH is (Mains 2010)
(a) pent-4-yn-2-ene
(b) pent-3-en-l-yne
(c) pent-2-en-4-yne
(d) pent-l-yn-3-ene

39. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH≡C—CH=CH₂ is (2009)
(a)1-butyne-3-ene
(b) but-1-yne-3-ene
(c)1-butene-3-yne
(d) 3-butene-1-yne.

40. Base strength of (2008)

is in the order of
(a) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(b) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(c) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(d) (iii) > (ii) > (i)

41. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack? (2008)

42. The stability of carbanions in the following

is in the order of (2008)
(a) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(b) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(c) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(d) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)

43. CH₃ – CHCl – CH₂ – CH₃ has a chiral centre. Which one of the following represents its R-configuration? (2007)

44. For (i) I^– , (ii) Cl^–, (iii) Br^–, the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be (2007)
(a) Cl^– < Br^– < I^–
(b) I^– < Cl^–< Br^–
(c) Br^– <Cl^– <I^–
(d) I^– <Br^–<Cl^–

45. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be
(i) benzene
(ii) toluene
(iii) chlorobenzene
(iv) phenol (2007)
(a) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
(b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(c) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(d) (i)> (ii)> (iii)> (iv)

46. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is (2006)

47. The IUPAC name of (2006)

(a) 1 -chloro-1 -oxo-2,3-dimethylpentane
(b) 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
(c) 2,3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
(d) 3,4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride.

48. Names of some compounds are given. Which one is not in IUPAC system? (2005)

49. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by S_Nl mechanism? (2005)
(a) Ethyl chloride
(b) Isopropyl chloride
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Benzyl chloride

50. The chirality of the compound (2005)

(a) R
(b) S
(c) E
(d) Z

51. Which amongst the following is the most stable carbocation? (2005)

52. Which one of the following pairs represents stereoisomerism? (2005)
(a) Structural isomerism and geometrical isomerism
(b) Optical isomerism and geometrical isomerism
(c) Chain isomerism and rotational isomerism
(d) Linkage isomerism and geometrical isomerism.

53. The best method for the separation of naphthalene and benzoic acid from their mixture is (2005)
(a) distillation
(b) sublimation
(c) chromatography
(d) crystallisation.

54. The – OH group of an alcohol or the – COOH group of a carboxylic acid can be replaced by – Cl using (2004)
(a) phosphorus pentachloride
(b) hypochlorous acid
(c) chlorine
(d) hydrochloric acid.

55. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane,

How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine atom? (2004)
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 7

56. Name of the compound given below is (2003)

(a) 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane
(b) 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
(c) 2,3-diethylheptane
(d) 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane

57. Which one of the following orders of acid strength is correct? (2003)
(a) RCOOH > ROH > HOH > HC ≡ CH
(b) RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC ≡ CH
(c) RCOOH > HOH > HC ≡ CH > ROH
(d) RCOOH > HC ≡ CH > HOH > ROH

58. The percentage of C, H and N in an organic compound are 40%, 13.3% and 46.7% respectively then empirical formula is (2002, 1999, 1998)
(a) C₃H₁₃N₃
(b) CH₂N
(c) CH₄N
(d) CH₆N

59. IUPAC name of the following is CH₂ = CH – CH₂ – CH₂ – C ≡ CH (2002)
(a) 1,5-hexenyne
(b) 1-hexene-5-yne
(c) l-hexyne-5-ene
(d) 1,5-hexynene.

60. Geometrical isomers differ in (2002)
(a) position of functional group
(b) position of atoms
(c) spatial arrangement of atoms
(d) length of carbon chain.

61. Which of the following is incorrect? (2001)
(a) FeCl₃ is used in detection of phenol.
(b) Fehling solution is used in detection of glucose.
(c) Tollen’s reagent is used in detection of unsaturation.
(d) NaHS0₃ is used in detection of carbonyl compound.

62. The incorrect IUPAC name is (2001)

63. In steam distillation of toluene, the pressure of toluene in vapour is (2001)
(a) equal to pressure of barometer
(b) less than pressure of barometer
(c) equal to vapour pressure of toluene in simple distillation
(d) more than vapour pressure of toluene in simple distillation.

64. Which one of the following orders is correct regarding the – I effect of the substituents? (1998)
(a) —NR₂<—OR<—F
(b) —NR₂>—OR>—F
(c) —NR₂<—OR>—F
(d) —NR₂>—OR<—F

65. The following reaction is described as (1997)

66. Tautomerism is exhibited by(1997)
(a) R₃CNO₂
(b) RCH₂N0₂
(c) (CH₃)₃CNO
(d) (CH₃)₂NH

67. Which of the following technique is most suitable for purification of cyclohexanone from a mixture containing benzoic acid, isoamyl alcohol, cyclohexane and cyclohexanone? (1997)
(a) Sublimation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Crystallisation
(d) IR spectroscopy

68. The number of isomers in C₄H₁₀O will be (1996)
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 6

69. The IUPAC name of (CH₃)₂CH – CH₂ – CH₂Br is (1996)
(a)1-bromo-3-methylbutane
(b) 2-methyl-3-bromopropane
(c) 1-bromopentane
(d) 2-methyl-4-bromobutane.

70. Which of the following is used as an antiknocking material? (1996)
(a) Glyoxal
(b) Freon
(c) T.E.L.
(d) Ethyl alcohol

71. In which of the following compounds there is more than one kind of hybridization (sp, sp², sp³) for carbon? (1995)
(a) CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂
(b) H – C ≡ C – H
(c) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₃
(d) CH₃-CH = CH – CH₃

72. The IUPAC name for (1995)

73. Which of the following statements is not correct? (1993)
(a) Double bond is shorter than a single bond.
(b) Sigma bond is. weaker than a π (pi) bond.
(c) Double bond is stronger than a single bond.
(d) Covalent bond is stronger than hydrogen bond.

74. When the hybridization state of carbon atom changes from sp³ to sp² and finally to sp, the angle between the hybridized orbitals (1993)
(a) decreases gradually
(b) decreases considerably
(c) is not affected
(d) increases progressively.

75. Which of the following fertilizers has the highest nitrogen percentage? (1993)
(a) Ammonium sulphate
(b) Calcium cyanamide
(c) Urea
(d) Ammonium nitrate

76. The restricted rotation about carbon carbon double bond in 2-butene is due to (1993)
(a) overlap of one s and sp²-hybridized orbitals
(b) overlap of two sp²-hybridized orbitals
(c) overlap of one p and one sp²-hybridized orbitals
(d) sideways overlap of two p-orbitals.

77. A is a lighter phenol and B is an aromatic carboxylic acid. Separation of a mixture of A and B can be carried out easily by using a solution of (1992)
(a) sodium hydroxide
(b) sodium sulphate
(c) calcium chloride
(d) sodium bicarbonate.

78. 2-Methyl-2-butene will be represented as (1992)

79. The IUPAC name of (1992)

(a) 4-hydroxy-1-methylpentanal
(b) 4-hydroxy-2-methylpent-2-en-1 al
(c) 2-hydroxy-4-methylpent-3-en-5-al
(d) 2-hydroxy-3-methylpent-2-en-5-al

80. Isomers of a substance must have the same (1991)
(a) structural formula
(b) physical properties
(c) chemical properties
(d) molecular formula.

81. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation (carbonium ion)? (1991)
(a) CH₃CH₂⁺
(b) (CH₃)₂⁺CH
(c) (CH₃)₃⁺C
(d) C₆H₅⁺CH₂

82. In sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into (1991)
(a) sodamide
(b) sodium cyanide
(c) sodium nitrite
(d) sodium nitrate.

83. The shortest C-C bond distance is found in (1991)
(a) diamond
(b) ethane
(c) benzene
(d) acetylene.

84. A sp³ hybrid orbital contains (1991)
(a) 1/4 s-character
(b) 1/2 s-character
(c) 1/3 s-character
(d) 2/3 s-character.

85. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C₈H₁₀. The hybridization of the carbon atoms from one end of the chain to the other are respectively sp³, sp², sp², sp³, sp², sp², sp and sp. The structural formula of the hydrocarbon would be (1991)
(a) CH₃C ≡ CCH₂ – CH = CHCH = CH₂
(b) CH₃CH₂ – CH = CHCH = CHC ≡ CH
(c) CH₃CH = CHCH₂ – C ≡ CCH = CH₂
(d) CH₃CH = CHCH₂ – CH = CHC ≡ CH

86. Kjeldahl’s method is used in the estimation of (1990)
(a) nitrogen
(b) halogens
(c) sulphur
(d) oxygen.

87. An organic compound X (molecular formula C₆H₇O₂N) has six carbon atoms in a ring system, two double bonds and a nitro group as substituent, X is (1990)
(a) homocyclic but not aromatic
(b) aromatic but not homocyclic
(c) homocyclic and aromatic
(d) heterocyclic and aromatic.

88. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism? (1989)
(a) CH₃-CHCl-COOH
(b) H – C ≡ C – Cl
(c) ClCH = CHCl
(d) ClCH₂-CH₂Cl

89. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon in its structure? (1989)
(a) CH₂= CCl-CH = CH₂
(b) CCl₂ = CCl₂
(c) CH₂ = C = CH₂
(d) CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂

90. Cyclic hydrocarbon ‘A’ has all the carbon and hydrogen atoms in a single plane. All the carbon -carbon bonds have the same length, less than 1.54 Å, but more than 1.34 Å. The bond angle will be (1989)
(a) 109°28′
(b) 100°
(c) 180°
(d) 120°

91. Lassaigne’s test is used in qualitative analysis to detect (1989)
(a) nitrogen
(b) sulphur
(c) chlorine
(d) all of these.

92. How many chain isomers could be obtained from the alkane C₆H₁₄? (1988)
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven

93. The Cl-C-Cl angle in 1, 1, 2, 2- tetrachloroethene and tetrachloromethane respectively will be about (1988)
(a) 120° and 109.5°
(b) 90° and 109.5°
(c) 109.5°and 90°
(d) 109.5° and 120°.

Answer Key

Explanations

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