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NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Current Electricity

May 3, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Current Electricity

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions Chemistry Biology

1. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If σ₁ and σ₂ are the conductivities of the metal wires respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is (AIPMT 2015)

2. A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will be (AIPMT 2015)
(a) 2 A
(b) 1 A
(c) 0.5 A
(d) 0.25 A

3. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a battery of e.m.f. E₀ and a resistance r₁. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length / of the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by (AIPMT 2015)

4. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5R and 3R respectively as shown in the figure. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are V_a V_b and V_c respectively. Then (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)

5. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross section a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)
(a) drift velocity
(b) electric field
(c) current density
(d) current

6. A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 Ω. The resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2 V, so as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)
(a) 44 Ω
(b) 48 Ω
(c) 32 Ω
(d) 40 Ω

7. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire is (AIPMT 2014)
(a) 19.2 W
(b) 19.2 kW
(c) 19.2 J
(d) 12.2 kW

8. The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω respectively.When the resistance R is shunted with an tjqual resistance, the new balance point is at 1.6I₁. The resistance R is

(a) 10 Ω
(b) 15 Ω
(c) 20 Ω
(d) 25 Ω

9. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the resistance R, connected across the given cell, has values of (AIPMT 2014)
(i) infinity
(ii) 9.5 Ω
the balancing lengths on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is
(a) 0.25 Ω
(b) 0.95 Ω
(c) 0.5 Ω
(d) 0.75 Ω

10. The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be (NEET 2013)
(a) 0.1 A
(b) 2.0 A
(c) 1.0 A
(d) 0.2 A

11. The internal resistance ofa 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 Ω is (NEET 2013)
(a) 0.8 Ω
(b) 1.0 Ω
(c) 0.2 Ω
(d) 0.5 Ω

12. A wire of resistance 4 Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be (NEET 2013)
(a) 8 Ω
(b) 16 Ω
(c) 2 Ω
(d) 4 Ω

13. Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both have a cross-sectional area of 0.01 cm². Each is 1 meter long. One rod is of copper with a resistivity of 1.7 × 10^-6 ohm-centimeter, the other is of iron with a resistivity of 10⁵ ohm-centimeter. How much voltage is required to produce a current of 1 ampere in the rods? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) 0.00145 V
(b) 0.0145 V
(c) 1.7 × 10^-6V
(d) 0.117 V

14. A 12 cm wire is given a A shape of a right angled triangle ABC having 3 cm sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm as shown in the B figure. The resistance between two ends (AB, BC, CA) of the respective sides are measured one by one by a multi-meter. The resistances will be in the ratio (Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) 9 : 16 : 25
(b) 27 : 32: 35
(c) 21 : 24 : 25
(d) 3 :4 : 5

15. Ten identical cells connected in series are needed to heat a wire of length one meter and radius r by 10°C in time How many cells will be required to heat the wire of length two meter of the same radius by the same temperature in time ” t ‘? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a)20
(b)30
(c)40
(d)10

16. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For V_a = 12 V, R₁ = 500 Ω and R= 100 Ω the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of VB is (Prelims 2012)
(a) 4V
(b) 2 V
(c) 12 V
(d) 6V

17. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 Ω. Find the points A and B, as shown in the figure, at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so’that the resistance R of the sub circuit between these points is equal to 8/3 Ω

18. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt-100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is (Prelims 2012)
(a) 20 %
(b) 2.5 %
(c) 5 %
(d) 10 %

19. A cell having an emf e and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by (Mains 2012 )

20. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 watts. The value of R is (Mains 2012)

(a) 20 Ω
(b) 15 Ω
(c) 10 Ω
(d) 30 Ω

21. A current of 2 A flows through a 2 Ω resistor when connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9 Ω resistor. The internal resistance of the battery is (Prelims 2011)
(a) 0.5 Ω
(b) 1/3 Ω
(c) 1/4 Ω
(d) 1 Ω

22. If power dissipated in the 9 Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 watt, the potential difference across the 2 Ω resistor is (Prelims 2011)

(a) 4 volt
(b) 8 volt
(c) 10 volt
(d) 2 volt

23. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point B is (mains 2011)

(a) + 1V
(b) – IV
(c) +2V
(d) -2 V

24. A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown. The potential gradient, across the potentiometer wire, is k volt/cm and the ammeter, present in the circuit, reads 1.0 A when two way key is switched off. The balance points, when the key between the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is plugged in, are found to be at lengths l₁ cm and l₂ cm respectively. The magnitudes, of the resistors R and X, in ohms, are then, equal, respectively, to (Prelims 2010)

25. Consider the following two statements. (Prelims 2010)
(A) Kirch hoffs junction law follows from the conservation of charge.
(B) Kirch hoff’s loop law follows from the conservation of energy.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (B) are wrong
(b) (A) is correct and (B) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong and (B) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (B) are correct

26. See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it? (Prelims 2009)

27. A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure is (Prelims 2009)

(a) 3 Ω
(b) 671 Ω
(c) 6 Ω
(d) 0.67 π Ω

28. A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf e and internal resistance r) as a function of the current (7) flowing through it. The slope, and intercept, of the graph between V and I, then, respectively, equal (Prelims 2009)
(a) – r and E
(b) r and – E
(c) – E and r
(d) E and – r

29. The mean free path of electrons in a metal is 4 × 10^-8 m. The electric field which can give on an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the-metal will be in units V/m (Prelims 2009)
(a) 5 x 10^-11
(b) 8 x 10^-11
(c) 5 x 10⁷
(d) 8 x 10⁷

30. In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 Ω resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M are connected to a d.c. voltage source. The potential diff erence between the points M and N is (Prelims 2008)

(a) 0.5 volt
(b) 3.2 volt
(c) 1.5 volt
(d) 1.0 volt

31. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific resistance become respectively (Prelims 2008)
(a) both remain the same
(b) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
(c) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(d) 1.21 times, same

32. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and without being short circuited through a resistance of 10 Ω. Its internal resistance is (Prelims 2008)
(a) 2.0 ohm
(b) zero
(c) 1.0 ohm
(d) 0.5 ohm

33. An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from temperature 20°C ? The temperature of boiling water is 100°C (Prelims 2008 )
(a) 12.6 min
(b) 4.2 min
(c) 6.3 min
(d) 8.4 min

34. A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2 Ω resistor shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the 5 Ω resistor is JQ (Prelims 2008)

(a) 1 watt
(b) 5 watt
(c) 4 watt
(d) 2 watt

35. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2 Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6 Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of SI (2007)
(a) 3 Ω
(b) 6 Ω
(c) 1 Ω
(d) 2 Ω.

36. The total power dissipated in watt in the circuit shown here is (2007)

(a) 40
(b) 54
(c) 4
(d) 16.

37. In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected between points A and B, the current in this wire will (2006)

(a) flow from B to A
(b) flow from A to B
(c) flow in the direction which will be decided by the value of V
(d) be zero.

38. Kirchhoffs first and second laws of electrical circuits are consequences of (2006)
(a) conservation of energy and electric charge respectively
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of electric charge and energy respectively
(d) conservation of electric charge.

39. Two cells, having the same e.m.f. are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistances r, and r2 (r₁ > r₂) respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential difference across the first cell is zero.
The value of R is (2006)

40. Power dissipated across the 8 Ω resistor in the circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power dissipated in watt units across the 3 Ω resistor is (2006)

(a) 3.0
(b) 2.0
(e) 1.0
(d) 0.5

41. Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal resistance 2 Ω and the other of emf 12 volts and internal resistance 1 Ω, are connected as shown. The voltmeter V will record a reading of (2005)

(a) 30 voIt
(b) 18 voIt
(c) 15 voIt
(d) 14 volt.

42. When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length ¡ and resistance R is bent into a complete circle, resistance between any two of diametrically opposite points will be (2005)
(a) R/4
(b) 4R
(c) R/8
(d) R/2.

43. For the network shown in the figure the value of the current i is (2005)

44. A 5-ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is (2005)
(a) 0.04 ohm
(b) 0.2 ohm
(c) 5 ohm
(d) 0.4 ohm.

45. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then (2004)
(a) The resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved.
(b) ‘The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged.
(e) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled.
(d) The resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged.

46. Resistance n, each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. If these resistances were connected in series, the combination would have a resistance in ohms, equal to (2004)
(a) n²R
(b) R/n²
(c) R/n
(d) nR

47. Five equal resistances each of resistance R are connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V volts is connected between A and B. The current flowing in AFCEB will be (2004)

48. A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of a three metre long wire of uniform thickness and resistance of 100 ohm. The difference of potential between two points on the wire separated by a distance of 50 cm will b®f (2004)
(a) 2 volt
(b) 3 volt
(c) 1 volt
(d) 1.5 volt

49. When three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rating are connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the power drawn by them will be (2004)
(a) 60 watt
(b) 180 watt
(c) 10 watt
(d) 20 watt

50. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in India is R, the resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in USA will be (2004)
(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) R/4
(d) R/2

51. In a Wheatstone’s bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. If the resistance of the galvanometer arm is also R, the equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is (2003)
(a) R/4
(b) R/2
(c) R
(d) 2R

52. Two 220 volt, 100 watt bulbs are connected first in series and then in parallel. Each time the combination is connected to a 220 volt a.c. supply line. The power drawn by the combination in each case respectively will be (2003)
(a) 50 watt, 100 watt
(b) 100 watt, 50 watt
(c) 200 watt, 150 watt
(d) 50 watt, 200 watt

53. An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the coils is connected to an a.c. source, the water in the kettle boils in 10 minutes. When the other coil is used the water boils in 40 minutes. If both the coils are connected in parallel, the time taken by the same quantity of water to boil will be (2003)
(a) 8 minutes
(b) 4 minutes
(c) 25 minutes
(d) 15 minutes

54. Fuse wire is a wire of (2003)
(a) high resistance and high melting point
(b) high resistance and low melting point
(c) low resistance and low melting point
(d) low resistance and high melting point

55. For a cell terminal potential difference is 2.2V when circuit is open and reduces to 1.8 V when cell is connected to a resistance of R = 5 Ω. Determine internal resistance of cell (r) (2002)

56. Specific resistance of a conductor increases with (2002)
(a) increase in temperature
(b) increase in cross-section area
(c) increase in cross-section and decrease in length
(d) decrease in cross-section area.

57. Copper and silicon is cooled from 300 K to 60 K, the specific resistance (2001)
(a) decrease in copper but increase in silicon
(b) increase in copper but decrease in silicon
(c) increase in both
(d) decrease in both.

58. The resistance of each arm of the Wheatstone’s bridge is 10 ohm. A resistance of 10 ohm is connected in series with a galvanometer then the equivalent resistance across the battery will be (2001)
(a) 10 ohm
(b) 15 ohm
(c) 20 ohm
(d) 40 ohm.

59. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is 10^-7 Ωm and current flow through it is 0.1 amp. cross sectional area of wire is 10^-6m² then potential gradient will be (2001)
(a) 10^-2 volt/m
(b) 10^-4 volt/m
(c) 10^-6 volt/m
(d) 10^-8 volt/m.

60. The net resistance of the circuit between A and B is (2000)

61. A car battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 5 x 10^-2 Ω, receives a current of 60 amp, from external source, then terminal potential difference of battery is (2000)
(a) 12 V
(b) 9 V
(c) 15 V
(d) 20 V.

62. Two bulbs of (40 W, 200 V), and (100 W, 200 V). Then correct relation for their resistances (2000)

63. The potentiometer is best for measuring voltage, as (2000)
(a) it has a sensitive galvanometer and gives null deflection
(b) it has wire of high resistance
(c) it measures p.d. in closed circuit
(d) it measures p.d in open circuit.

64. The current in the given circuit is (1999)
(a) 4.9 A
(b) 6.8 A
(c) 8.3 A
(d) 2.0 A

65. The internal resistance of a cell of e.m.f. 2 V is 0.1 Ω. It is connected to a resistance of 3.9 Ω. The voltage across the cell will be (1999)
(a) 1.95 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 0.5 V
(d) 2 V

66. In a meter bridge, the balancing length from the left end (standard resistance of one ohm is in the right gap-) is found to be 20 cm. The value of the unknown resistance is (1999)
(a) 0.8 Ω
(b) 0.5 Ω
(c) 0.4 Ω
(d) 0.25 Ω

67. A potentiometer consists of a wire of length 4 m and resistance 10 Ω. It is connected to a cell of e.m.f. 2 V. The potential difference per unit length of the wire will be (1999)
(a) 5 V/m
(b) 2V/m
(c) 0.5 V/m
(d) 10 V/m

68. The resistance of a discharge tube is (1999)
(a) non-ohmic
(b) ohmic
(c) zero
(d) both (b) and (c)

69. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of e.m.f. together dissipate 10 watt of power. What will be the power dissipated in watt if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of e.m.f.? (1998)
(a) 30
(b) 10/3
(c) 10
(d) 90

70. A 5°C rise in temperature is observed in a conductor by passing a current. When the current is doubled the rise in temperature will be approximately (1998)
(a) 20°C
(b) 16°C
(c) 10°C
(d) 12°C

71. Three copper wires of lengths and cross¬sectional areas are (l, A), (2l, A/2) and (l/2, 2A). Resistance is minimum in (1997)
(a) wire of cross-sectional area 2A
(b) wire of cross-sectional area A/2
(c) wire of cross-sectional area A
(d) same in all three cases.

72. The current in the following circuit is (1997)

(a) 2/3 A
(b) 1A
(c) 1/8 A
(d) 2/9 A.

73. KirchhofFs first law, i.e. Σ i = 0 at a junction, deals with the conservation of (1997, 92)
(a) momentum
(b) angular momentum
(c) charge
(d) energy.

74. From the graph between current (I) and voltage (V) is shown below. Identify the portion corresponding to negative resistance (1997) (1997)

(a) CD
(b) DE
(c) AB
(d) BC.

75. A (100 W, 200 V) bulb is connected to a 160 volts supply. The power consumption would be (1997)
(a) 100 W
(b) 125 W
(c) 64 W
(d) 80 W.

76. One kilowatt hour is equal to (1997)
(a) 36 × 10^-5J
(b) 36 × 10^-4J
(c) 36 × 10⁵ J
(d) 36 × 10³ J.

77. If two bulbs, whose resistances are in the ratio of 1 : 2 are connected in series, the power dissipated in them has the ratio of (1997)
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 1:1
(d) 1 : 2.

78. What will be the equivalent resistance between the two points A and D (1996)

79. In the network shown in the figure, each of the resistance is equal to 2 n. The resistance between the points A and B is (1995)

80. Two wires of the same metal have same length, but their cross-sections are in the ratio 3:1. They are joined in series. The resistance of thicker wire is 10 fi. The total resistance of the combination will be (1995)
(a) 40 Ω
(b) 100 Ω
(c) (5/2) Ω
(d) (40/3) Ω

81. In good conductors of electricity, the type of bonding that exists is (1995)
(a) metallic
(b) vander Waals
(c) ionic
(d) covalent.

82. A heating coil is labelled 100 W, 220 V. The coil is cut in half and the two pieces are joined in parallel to the same source. The energy now liberated per second is (1995)
(a) 200 W
(b) 400 W
(c) 25 W
(d) 50 W

83. A 4 µF capacitor is charged to 400 V. If its plates are joined through a resistance of 2 k Ω then heat produced in the resistance is
(a) 0.64 J
(b) 1.28 J
(c) 0.16 J
(d) 0.32 J.

84. A wire 50 cm long and l mm² in cross-section carries a current of 4 A when connected to a 2 V battery. The resistivity of the wire is (1994)
(a) 4 × 10^-6Ω m
(b) l × 10^-6Ω m
(c) 2 × 10^-7 Ω m
(d) 5 × 10^-7 Ω m

85. Six resistors of 3 Ω each are connected along the sides of a hexagon and three resistors of 6 Ω each are connected along AC, AD and AE as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance between A and B is equal to (1994)

86. A flow of 107 electrons per second in a conducting wire constitutes a current of (1994)
(a) 1.6 × 10^-12A
(b) 1.6 × 10²⁶ A
(c) 1.6 × 10^-26 A
(d) 1.6 × 10¹² A.

87. Identify the set in which all the three materials are good conductors of electricity (1994)
(a) Cu, Hg and NaCl
(b) Cu, Ge and Hg
(c) Cu, Ag and Au
(d) Cu, Si and diamond.

88. An electric bulb is rated 60 W, 220 V. The resistance of its filament is (1994)
(a) 870 Ω
(b) 780 Ω
(c) 708 Ω
(d) 807 Ω.

89. Three resistances each of 4 Ω are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any two terminals is (1993)
(a) 12 Ω
(b) 2 Ω
(c) 6 Ω
(d) 8/3 Ω

90. Current through 3 Ω resistor is 0.8 ampere, then potential drop through 4 Ω resistor is (1993)

(a) 9.6 V
(b) 26 V
(c) 4.8 V
(d) 1.2 V

91. A battery of e.m.f 10 V and internal resistance 0.5 £2 is connected across a variable resistance R. The value of R for which the power delivered in it is maximum is given by (1992)
(a) 0.5 Ω
(b) 1.0 Ω
(c) 2.0 Ω
(d) 0.25 Ω

92. The velocity of charge carriers of current (about 1 ampere) in a metal under normal conditions is of the order of (1991)
(a) a fraction of mm/sec
(b) velocity of light
(c) several thousand metres/second
(d) a few hundred metres per second

93. In the network shown in figure each resistance is 1 £2. The effective resistance between A and B is (1990)

94. Two identical batteries each of e.m.f 2 V and internal resistance 1 £2 are available to produce heat in an external resitance by passing a current through it. The maximum power that can be developed across R using these batteries is (1990)
(a) 3.2 W
(b) 2.0 W
(c) 1.28 W
(d)8/9

95. You are given several identical resistances each of value R = 10 Ω and each capable of carrying a maximum current of one ampere. It is required to make a suitable combination of these resistances of 5 Ω which can carry a current of 4 ampere. The minimum number’of resistances of the type R that will be required for this job is (1990)
(a) 4
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 20

96. A current of 2 A, passing through a conductor produces 80 J of heat in 10 seconds. The resistance of the conductor in ohm is
(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 20

97. 40 electric bulbs are connected in series across a 220 V supply. After one bulb is fused the remaining 39 are connected again in series across the same supply. The illumination will be (1989)
(a) more with 40 bulbs than with 39
(b) more with 39 bulbs than with 40
(c) equal in both the cases
(d) in the ratio 402 : 392

98. n equal resistors are first connected in series and then connected in parallel. What is the ratio of the maximum to the minimum resistance ? (1989)
(a) n
(b) 1/ n²
(c) n²
(d) 1/n

99. Two batteries of emf 4 V and 8 V with internal resistance 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in a circuit with resistance of 9 Ω as shown in figure. The current and potential difference between the points P and Q are (1988)

100. The masses of the wires of copper is in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical resistance is (1988)
(a) 1 : 3 : 5
(b) 5 : 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 25 : 125
(d) 125 : 15 : 1σ

EXPLANATIONS

1. (c)
As both metal wires are of identical ! dimensions, so their, length and area of cross- ! section will be same. Let them be / and A \ respectively. Then The resistance of the first wire is

2. (c)
The circuit is shown in the figure.

As ammeter is in series with 40.8 Ω
∴Total resistance of the circuit is
R = 40.8 Ω + R_a = 40.8 Ω+ 19.2 Ω = 60 Ω
By Ohm’s law,
Current in the circuit is

3. (d)

4.(e)
The current flowing in the different branches of circuit is indicated in the figure.

5. (d)
The area of cross section of conductor is non uniform so current density will be different but the flow of electrons will be uniform so current will be constant.

6. (c)
Required potential gradient = 1 mV cm^-1
$\overset { 1 }{ \underset { 10 }{ - } }$ V m^-1
Length of potentiometer wire, l = 4 m

7.(b)
Here, Distance between two cities =150 km
Resistance of the wire, R = (0.5 Ω km^-1 )(150 km)
= 75 Ω
Voltage drop across the wire,
V= (8 V km^-1) (150 km) = 1200 V
Power loss in the wire is

8. (b)
In the first case

9. (c)
The internal resistance of the cell is

10. (d)
The situation is as shown in the figure.

11. (d)

25. (d)
KirchhofFs junction law or KirchhofFs first law is based on the conservation of charge. KirchhofFs loop law or KirchhofFs second law is based on the conservation of energy.
Hence both statements (A) and (B) are correct.

56.(a)
Resistance of a conductor is given by
R = p 1/a , where p is the specific resistance, l is the length and A is the cross-sectional area of the conductor.
Now, when l = 1 and A = 1, R = p.
So specific resistance or resistivity of a material may be defined as the resistance of a specimen
of the material having unit length and unit cross¬section.
Hence, specific resistance is a property of a material and it will increase with the increase of temperature, but will not vary with the dimensions (length, cross¬section) of the conductor.

57. (a)
For metals specific resistance decrease with decrease in temperature whereas for semiconductors specific resistance increases with decrease in temperature.

63. (a)

68. (a)

73. (c)

81. (a)

87. (c)

92. (a)

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

May 1, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1.(NEET 2017)

2.Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating? (NEET 2017)

3.The correct structure of the product ‘A ’ formed in the reaction (NEET II 2016)

4.The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids (NEET II 2016)

5.Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1-2-diol from the trans-isomer? (NEET-I 2016)
(a) Mn0₂
(b) Aluminium isopropoxide
(c) Acetone
(d) Ozone

6.The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha- carbon, is (NEET I 2016)
(a) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation
(b) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism
(c) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol
(d) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.

7. The oxidation of benzene by V₂0₅ in the presence of air produces (2015)
(a) maleic anhydride
(b) benzoic acid
(c) benzaldehyde
(d) benzoic anhydride.

8. Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water. The reagent is (2015)
(a) hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
(b) hydrocyanic acid
(c) sodium hydrogen sulphite
(d) a Grignard reagent.

9.Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed most easily under alkaline conditions? (2015)

10. An organic compound “X having molecular formula C₅H₁₀O yields phenylhydrazone and gives negative response to the iodoform test and Tollens’ test. It produces n-pentane on reduction. ‘X could be (2015, Cancelled)
(a) 3-pentanone
(b) n-amyl alcohol
(c) pentanal
(d) 2-pentanone.

11. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction? (2014)

12. The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is (2013)

13.Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be prepared (2013)

14. Predict the products in the given reaction. (2012)

15. Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is (2012)

16. CH₃CHO and C₆H₅CH₂CHO can be distinguished chemically by (2012)
(a) Benedict’s test
(b) Iodoform test
(c) Tollen’s reagent test
(d) Fehling’s solution test

17. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B) , acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is (2012)
(a) B > A > D > C
(b) B > D > C > A
(c) A> B> C> D
(d )A>C>B>D

18. Consider the following reaction (Mains 2012)

19. Consider the reaction :
RCHO + NH₂NH₂ —>RCH=N – NH₂ What sort of reaction is it? (Mains 2012)
(a) Electrophilic addition-elimination reaction
(b) Free radical addition-elimination reaction
(c) Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction
(d) Nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction

20. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali? (Mains 2012)
(a) Acetophenone
(b) Methyl acetate
(c) Acetamide
(d) 2-Hydroxypropane

21. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following? (2011)
(a) Glycol with KOH
(b) Zn-Hg with HCl
(c) LiAlH₄
(d) H₂ and Pt as catalyst

22. In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D. (2011)

23. The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds: (mains 2011)

(a) III > II > I
(b) II > I > III
(c) I > III > II
(d) I > II > III

24. Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II and select the suitable option using the code given below. (Mains 2011)

25. An organic compound A on treatment with NH₃ gives B, which on heating gives C. C when treated with Br₂ in the presence of KOH produces ethyl amine. Compound A is (Mains 2011)

26. Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds? (2010)
(a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(b) Cannizzaro reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Friedel-Crafts acylation

27. Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methyl amine? (2010)
(a) NaOH-Br₂
(b) Sodalime
(c) Hot conc.H₂S0₄
(d) PCl₅

28. Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is (2010)
(a) CH₃COOCH₃
(b) CH₃CONH₂
(c) CH₃COOCOCH₃
(d) CH₃C0Cl

29. Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated? (mains 2010)

30. Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl₃CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces (2009)

31. Propionic acid with Br₂/P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be (2009)

32. Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C₂H₅ONa, yields a stable compound which has the structure (2008)

33. A strong base can abstract an α-hydrogen from (2008)
(a) ketone
(b) alkane
(c) alkene
(d) amine.

34. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of (2008)
(a) Acid anhydride > Amide > Ester > Acyl chloride
(b) Acyl chloride > Ester > Acid anhydride > Amide
(c) Acyl chloride > Acid anhydride > Ester > Amide
(d) Ester > Acyl chloride > Amide > Acid anhydride.

35. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and cone. HCl is called (2007)
(a) Cope reduction
(b) Dow reduction
(c) Wolf-Kishner reduction
(d) Clemmensen reduction.

36. Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?

37. The product formed in Aldol condensation is(2007)
(a) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
(b) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
(c) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
(d) a beta-hydroxy acid.

38. Consider the following compounds (2007)

The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(c) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
(d) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)

39. Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds? (2007)
(a) FCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH > BrCH₂COOH >ClCH₂COOH
(b) BrCH₂COOH>ClCH₂COOH >FCH₂COOH >CH₃COOH
(c) FCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH > BrCH₂COOH > CH₃COOH
(d) CH₃COOH > BrCH₂COOH > ClCH₂COOH >FCH₂COOH

40. Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in (2006)

41. A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is (2006)
(a) formaldehyde
(b) acetaldehyde
(c) acetone
(d) diethyl ketone.

42. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D. (2006)

43.Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in presence of sodium ethoxide yields (2006)
(a) ethyl propionate
(b) ethyl butyrate
(c) acetoacetic ester
(d) methyl acetoacetate.

44. The major organic product formed from the following reaction : (2005)

45.In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D. (2005)

46. Which one of the following can be oxidised to the corresponding carbonyl compound? (2004)
(a) 2-Hydroxypropane
(b) ortho-Nitrophenol
(c) Phenol
(d) 2-Methyl-2-hydroxypropane

47. In this reaction :

an asymmetric centre is generated. The acid obtained would be (2003)
(a) D-isomer
(b) L-isomer
(c) 50% D + 50% I-isomer
(d) 20% D + 80% i-isomer

48. When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is (are) (2003)

49.A and B in the following reactions are : (2003)

50. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a product C.(2003)

51.

(2002)
(a) resonating structures
(b) tautomers
(c) geometrical isomers
(d) optical isomers.

52. In the following reaction product P is (2002)

53. Which alkene on ozonolysis (2001)

54. Which of the following give positive Fehling solution test? (2001)
(a) Sucrose
(b) Glucose
(c) Fats
(d) Protein

55. Polarisation in acrolein can be described as (2000)

56. First product of the reaction between RCHO and NH₂NH₂ is (2000)
(a) RCH = NNH₂
(b) RCH = NH
(c) RCH₂NH₂
(d) RCON₃

57. Ethyl benzoate can be prepared from benzoic acid by using (2000)
(a) ethyl alcohol
(b) ethyl alcohol and dry HCl
(c) ethyl chloride
(d) sodium ethoxide.

58. Reduction by LiAlH₄ of hydrolysed product of an ester gives (2000)
(a) two alcohols
(b) two aldehydes
(c) one acid and one alcohol
(d) two acids.

59.
(1999)
(a) acetaldehyde
(b) ethanamine
(c) acetone
(d) dimethylamine

60. Aldol condensation will not take place in (1999, 1996)
(a) CH₃COCH₃
(b) CH₃CHO
(c) HCHO
(d) CH₃CH₂CHO

61. Which one of the following compounds will react with NaHC0₃ solution to give sodium salt and carbon dioxide? (1999)
(a) Acetic acid
(b) n-Hexanol
(c) Phenol
(d) Both (b) and (c)

62. Which one of the following esters cannot undergo Claisen self-condensation? (1998)
(a) C₆H₅CH₂COOC₂H₅
(b) C₆H₅COOC₂H₅
(c) CH3CH₂CH₂CH₂COOC₂H₅
(d) C₆H₁₁CH₂COOC₂H₅

63. An ester (A) with molecular formula, C₉H₁₀O₂ was treated with excess of CH₃MgBr and the complex so formed, was treated with H₂S0₄ to give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (C) gave a ketone with molecular formula C₈H₈O which shows +ve iodoform test. The structure of (A) is (1998)
(a) H₃CCH₂COC₆H₅
(b) C₂H5COOC₆H₅
(c) C₆H₅COOC₂H₅
(d) p-H₃CO – C₆H₄ – COCH₃

64. Ketones [RCOR1] where R = R1 = alkyl group. It can be obtained in one step by (1997)
(a) oxidation of tertiary alcohol
(b) reaction of acid halide with alcohols
(c) hydrolysis of esters
(d) oxidation of primary alcohol.

65. Phenylmethanol can be prepared by reducing the benzaldehyde with (1997)
(a) CH₃Br and Na
(b) CH₃I and Mg
(c) CH₃Br
(d) Zn and HCl.

66. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is called (1996)
(a) Etard reaction
(b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Cannizzaro’s reaction.

67. Which of the following compound gives benzoic acid on hydrolysis? (1996)
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) Benzoyl chloride
(c) Chlorophenol
(d) Chlorotoluene

68. The order of reactivity of carbonyl compounds for nucleophilic addition is (1995)
(a) Ar₂C = O > R₂C = O > ArCHO > RCHO > H₂C = O
(b) H₂C = O > R₂C = O > Ar₂C = O > RCHO> ArCHO
(c) H₂C = O > RCHO > ArCHO > R₂C = O > Ar₂C = O
(d) ArCHO > Ar₂C = O > RCHO > R₂C = O >H₂C= O

69. In the reaction
CH₃CHO + HCN—> CH₃CH(OH)CN. a chiral centre is produced. This product is (1995)
(a) dextrorotatory
(b) racemic mixture
(c) meso compound
(d) laevorotatory.

70. Which one of the following product is formed when adipic acid is heated? (1995)

71. The oxidation of toluene with Cr0₃ in the presence of (CH₃CO)₂0 gives a product A, which on treatment with aqueous NaOH produces (1995)
(a) C₆H₅COONa
(b) 2, 4-diacetyl toluene
(c) C₆H₅CHO
(d) (C₆H₅C0)₂O.

72. Compounds has a molecular formula C₂Cl₃OH. It reduces Fehling’s solution and on oxidation, it gives a monocarboxylic acid B. If A is obtained by the action of chlorine on ethyl alcohol, then compound A is (1994)
(a) methyl chloride
(b) monochloro acetic acid
(c) chloral
(d) chloroform.

73. Which of the following compound will undergo self aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali? (1994)
(a) CH ≡ C – CHO
(b) CH₂ = CHCHO
(c) C₆H₅CHO
(d) CH₃CH₂CHO

74. Which of the following compounds will give positive test with Tollen’s reagent? (1994)
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Acetone
(c) Acetamide
(d) Acetaldehyde

75. An acyl halide is formed when PCl₅reacts with an (1994)
(a) amide
(b) ester
(c) acid
(d) alcohol.

76. Sodium formate on heating yields (1993)
(a) oxalic acid and H₂
(b) sodium oxalate and H₂
(c) C0₂ and NaOH
(d) sodium oxalate.

77. (CH₃)₂C=CHCOCH₃ can be oxidised to (CH₃)₂C = CHCOOH by (1993)
(a) chromic acid
(b) NaOI
(c) Cu at 300°C
(d) KMn0₄

78. In which of the following, the number of carbon atoms does not remain same when carboxylic acid is obtained by oxidation? (1992)
(a) CH₃COCH₃
(b) CCl₃CH₂CHO
(c) CH₃CH₂CH₂OH
(d) CH₃CH₂CHO

79. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated with X and phenol gives benzene on being heated with Y. Therefore X and Y are respectively (1992)
(a) soda-lime and copper
(b) Zn dust and NaOH
(c) Zn dust and soda-lime
(d) soda-lime and zinc dust.

80. Acetaldehyde reacts with (1991)
(a) electrophiles only
(b) nucleophiles only
(c) free radicals only
(d) both electrophiles and nucleophiles.

81. The reagent (s) which can be used to distin¬guish acetophenone from benzophenone is (are) (1990)
(a) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
(b) aqueous solution of NaHS0₃
(c) Benedict reagent
(d) I₂ and NaOH.

82. Indicate which of the nitrogen compound amongst the following would undergo Hofmann’s reaction, i. e., reaction with Br₂ and strong KOH to furnish the primary amine (R – NH₂)? (1989)
(a) R- CO – NHCH₃
(b) R – CO – ONH₄
(c) R- CO – NH₂
(d) R-CO -NHOH.

83.

The above shown polymer is obtained when a carbonyl compound is allowed to stand. It is a white solid. The polymer is (1989)
(a) trioxane
(b) formose
(c) paraformaldehyde
(d) metaldehyde.

84.

The given compound describes a condensation polymer which can be obtained in two ways : either treating 3 molecules of acetone (CH₃COCH₃) with cone. H₂S0₄ or passing propyne (CH₃C ≡ CH) through a red hot tube. The polymer is (1989)
(a) phorone
(b) mesityl oxide
(c) deacetonyl alcohol
(d) mesitylene.

85.

This polymer (B) is obtained when acetone is saturated with hydrogen chloride gas, B can be (1989)
(a) phorone
(b) formose
(c) diacetone alcohol
(d) mesityl oxide.

86. The compound formed when malonic acid is heated with urea is (1989)
(a) cinnamic acid
(b) butyric acid
(c) barbituric acid
(d) crotonic acid.

87. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get (1988)
(a) methane
(b) methyl alcohol
(c) ethyl formate
(d) acetylene.

88. Formalin is an aqueous solution of (1988)
(a) fluorescein
(b) formic acid
(c) formaldehyde
(d) furfuraldehyde.

89. Among the following the strongest acid is (1988)
(a) CH₃COOH
(b) CH₂ClCH₂COOH
(c) CH₂ClCOOH
(d) CH₃CH₂COOH.

90. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of acidic strength of (1988)
(i) methanoic acid
(ii) ethanoic acid
(iii) propanoic acid
(iv) butanoic acid
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
(c) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
(d) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii).

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Coordination Compounds

May 1, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Coordination Compounds

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is (NEET 2017)
(a) Grignard’s reagent
(b) ferrocene
(c) cobaltocene
(d) ruthenocene.

2. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgN0₃ in excess is treated with the complexes : COCl₃.6NH₃, COCl₃.5NH₃, COCl₃.4NH₃ respectively is (NEET 2017)
(a) 3AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl
(b) 3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl
(c) 2AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl
(d) 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl

3. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co³⁺ is (NEET 2017)
(a) [Co(H₂0)₆]³⁺, [Co(en)₃]³⁺ ,[Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(b) [Co(H₂0)₆]³⁺, [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺ ,[Co(en)₃]³⁺
(c) [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺, [CO(en)₃]³⁺ ,[Co(H₂0)₆]³⁺
(d) [Co(en)₃]³⁺, [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ , [Co(H₂0)₆]³⁺

4. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)₆]^3-. (NEET 2017)
(a) It is sp³d² hybridised and tetrahedral.
(b) It is d²sp³ hybridised and octahedral.
(c) It is dsp² hybridised and square planar.
(d) It is sp³d² hybridised and octahedral.

5. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is (NEET-II 2016)
(a) NH₃ > CN^– > Br^– > C₆H₅^–
(b) CN^–> C₆H₅^– > Br^– > NH₃
(c) Br^– > CN^–> NH₃ > C₆H₅^–
(d) CN^– > Br^– > C₆H₅^– > NH₃

6. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of (NEET-II 2016)
(a) d⁷
(b) d⁸
(c) d⁴
(d) d⁹

7. Which of the following has longest C—O bond length? (Free C—O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å.) (NEET-I 2016)
(a) [Fe(CO)₄]^2-
(b) [Mn(CO)₆]⁺
(c) Ni(CO)₄
(d) [Co(CO)₄]^–

8. The hybridization involved in complex [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is (At. No. Ni = 28) (2015)
(a) sp³
(b) d²sp²
(c) d²sp³
(d) dsp²

9. The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)₆]^3- is (2015)
(a) hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
(b) tricyanoferrate (III) ion
(c) hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
(d) hexacyanoiron (III) ion.

10. The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex [M/(en)₂(C₂0₂)]Cl (where en is ethylenediamine) is (2015)
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

11. Number of possible isomers for the complex
[Co(en)₂Cl₂]Cl will be (en = ethylenediamine) (2015)
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2

12. Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test for chlpride ions with silver nitrate at 25°C? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) CoCl₃ • 5NH₃
(b) CoCl₃ • 6NH₃
(c) CoCl₃ • 3NH₃
(d) CoCl₃ • 4NH₃

13. Which of these statements about [Co(CN)₆]^3- is true? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) [CO(CN)₆]^3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
(b) [CO(CN)₆]^3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration.
(c) [CO(C’N)₆]^3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.
(d) [CO(CN)₆]^3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration.

14. Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is (2014)
(a) [Mn(H₂0)₆]³⁺
(b) [Fe(H₂0)₆]³⁺
(c) [CO(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(d) [CO(H₂0)₆]³⁺

15. Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent? (2014)
(a) mer-[Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃]
(b) cis-PtCl₂(NH₃)₂]
(c) cis-K₂[PtCl₂Br₂]
(d) Na₂CoCl₄

16. A magnetic moment at 1.73 BM will be shown by one among of the following (NEET 2013)
(a) TiCl₄
(b) [CoCl₆]^4-
(c) [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺
(d) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-

17. An excess of AgN0₃ is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetraaqua- chromium (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be (NEET 2013)
(a) 0.003
(b) 0.01
(c) 0.001
(d) 0.002

18. Crystal field splitting energy for high spin ct octahedral complex is (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) – 1.2 Δ₀
(b) – 0.6 Δ₀
(c) -0.8 Δ₀
(d) – 1.6 Δ₀

19. In a particular isomer of [CO(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁰, the Cl – Co – Cl angle is 90°, the isomer is known as (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) optical isomer
(b) cis-isomer
(c) position isomer
(d) linkage isomer.

20. The anion of acetylacetone (acac) forms Co (acac)₃ chelate with Co³⁺. The rings of the chelate are (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) five membered
(b) four membered
(c) six membered
(d) three membered.

21. The correct IUPAC name for [CrF₂(en)₂] Cl is (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) chloro difluorido ethylene diaminechromium (III) chloride
(b) difluoridobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III) chloride
(c) difluorobis-(ethylene diamine) chromium (III) chloride
(d) chloro difluoridobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III)

22. Which among the following is a paramagnetic complex? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(b) [Pt(en)Cl₂]
(c) [CoBr₄]^2-
(d) MO(CO)₆
(At. No. Mo = 42, Pt = 78)

23. Which is diamagnetic? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) [CO(F)₆]^3-
(b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
(c) [NiCl₄]^2-
(d) [Fe(CN)₆]^3-

24. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour? (2012)
(a) [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺
(b) [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺
(c) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(d) [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺

25. Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II). Which of the following statements is not true? (Mains 2012)
(a) Red complex has a square planar geometry.
(b) Complex has symmetrical H-bonding.
(c) Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry.
(d) Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand.

26. Low spin complex of d⁶-cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy (2012)
(a)-12/5 Δ₀+P
(b) -12/5 Δ₀+3P
(c)-2/5 Δ₀+2P
(d) -2/5 Δ₀+P
(Δ₀ = crystal field splitting energy in an octahedral field, P = Electron pairing energy)

27. Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature? (2011)
(a) [NiCl₄]^2-
(b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
(c) [CuCl₄]^2-
(d) [COF₆]^3-

28. The complexes [Co(NH₃)₆][Cr(CN)₆] and [Cr(NH₃)₆][Co(CN)₆] are the examples of which type of isomerism? (2011)
(a) Linkage isomerism
(b) Ionization isomerism
(c) Coordination isomerism
(d) Geometrical isomerism

29. The complex, [Pt(Py)(NH₃)BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers? (2011)
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 0
(d) 2

30. The d-electron configurations of Cr²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺ and Co²⁺ are d⁴, d⁵, d⁶ and d⁷ respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour? (2011)
(a) [Mn(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(b) [Fe(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(c) [CO(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(d) [Cr(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

31. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C – O bond? (2011)
(a) Mn(CO)₆⁺
(b) Cr(CO)₆
(c) V(CO)₆^–
(d) Fe(CO)₅

32. Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour? (2011)
(a) [Ti(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(b) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(c) [CO(NH₃)₆]²⁺
(d) [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺
(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)

33. Which of the following complex ions is not ‘ expected to absorb visible light? (2010)
(a) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
(b) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(c) [Fe(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(d) [Ni(H₂0)₆]²⁺

34. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d⁴ octahedral complex is (2010)
(a) – 1.8 Δ₀
(b) – 1.6 Δ₀ + P
(c) – 1.2 Δ₀
(d) – 0.6 Δ₀

35. The existance of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ is due to (2010)
(a) linkage isomerism
(b) geometrical isomerism
(c) coordination isomerism
(d) ionization isomerism.

36. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism? (2010)
(a) [Ni(NH₃)₄(H₂0)₃]²⁺
(b) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(c) [Ni(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(d) [Ni(en)₃]²⁺

37. Out of TiF₆^2- ,CoF₆^3-, Cu₂Cl₂ and NiCl₄^2- (Z of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the colourless species are (2009)
(a) Cu₂Cl₂ and NiCl₄^2-
(b) TiF₆^2- and Cu₂Cl₂
(c) COF₆^3- and NiCl₄^2-
(d) TiF₆^2- and CoF₆^3- .

38. Which of the following does not show optical isomerism? (2009)
(a) [CO(NH₃)₃Cl₃]⁰
(b) [Co(en)Cl₂(NH₃)₂]⁺
(c) [Co(en)₃]³⁺
(d) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺
(en = ethylenediamine)

39. Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light (2009)
(a) [Ti(en)₂(NH₃)₂]⁴⁺
(b) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(c) [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺
(d) [SC(H₂0)₃(NH₃)₃]³⁺
[At. nos. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24]

40. Which of the following complexes exhibits the highest paramagnetic behaviour? (2008)
(a) [CO(ox)₂(OH)₂]^–
(b) [Ti(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(c) [V(gly)₂(OH)₂(NH₃)₂]⁺
(d) [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH₃)₂]²⁺
where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine and bpy = bipyridyl moities.
(At. nos. Ti = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

41. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of Δ₀ (CFSE in octahedral field) will be maximum? (2008)
(a) [CO(CN)₆]^3-
(b) [Co(C₂0₄)₃]^3-
(c) [CO(H₂0)₆]³⁺
(d) [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(At. No. Co = 27)

42. Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs? (2007)
(a) [Cr(NH₃)₆][Co(CN)₆]
(b) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]Cl
(c) [Pt(NH₃)₄][PtCl₆]
(d) [CO(NH₃)₄Cl₂]N0₂
(en = NH₂CH₂CH₂NH₂)

43. The d electron configurations of Cr²⁺ ,Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺ and Ni²⁺ are 3d⁴, 3d⁵, 3d⁶ and 3d⁸ respectively. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour? (2007)
(a) [Fe(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(b) [Ni(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(c) [Cr(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(d) [Mn(H₂0)₆]²⁺
(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)

44. [Cr(H₂0)₆]Cl₃ (At. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 B.M. The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex is (2006)

45. [CO(NH₃)₄(N0₂)₂]Cl exhibits (2006)
(a) linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism
(b) linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism
(c) linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism
(d) ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism.

46. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour? (2005)
(a) [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺
(b) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(c) [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(d) [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺
(Atomic number : Zn = 30, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Ni = 28)

47. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomerism? (2005)
(en = ethylenediamine)
(a) cis-[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(b) trans-[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(c) cis-[Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺
(d) trans-[Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺

48. Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer species?

49. Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical isomerism? (2004)
(a) Pentaamminenitrocobalt(IlI) iodide
(b) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
(c) trans -Dicyan obis (ethylenediamine) chromium (III) chloride
(d) tris-(Ethylenediamine)cobalt(III) bromide.

50. Among [Ni(CO)₄], [Ni( CN)₄]^2- ,[NiCl₄]^2- species, the hybridisation states at the Ni atom are, respectively (2004)
(a) sp³, dsp², dsp²
(b) sp³, dsp², sp³
(c) sp³, sp³, dsp²
(d) dsp², sp³, sp3³.
[Atomic number of Ni = 28]

51. CN^– is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that – (2004)
(a) it carries negative charge
(b) it is a pseudohalide
(c) it can accept electrons from metal species
(d) it forms high spin complexes with metal species.

52. Considering H₂0 as a weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H₂0)₆]²⁺ will be (atomic number of Mn = 25) (2004)
(a) three
(b) five
(c) two
(d) four.

53. Which of the following does not have a metal – carbon bond? (2004)
(a) Al(OC₂H₅)₃
(b) C₂H₅MgBr
(c) K[Pt(C₂H₄)Cl₃]
(d) Ni(CO)₄

54. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals involved in d²sp³ hybridisation is (2004)
(a) d_x²–_y² , d_z²
(b) d_xz, d_x²–_y²
(c) d_z²,d_xz
(d) d_xy , d_yz

55. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [COF₆]^3- is (2003)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) zero
(Atomic no. : Co = 27)

56. Among the following which is not the p-bonded organometallic compound? (2003)
(a) K [PtCl₃ (η² – C₂H₄)]
(b) Fe (η⁵ – C₅H₅)₂
(c) Cr (η⁶ – C₆H₆)₂
(d) (CH₃)₄Sn

57. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 24 and 26, which of the following is paramagnetic with the spin of electron? (2002)
(a) [Cr(CO)₆]
(b) [Fe(CO)₅]
(c) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
(d) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

58. The hypothetical complex chloro diaquatriammine cobalt(III) chloride can be represented as (2002)
(a) [CoCl(NH₃)₃(H₂O)₂]Cl₂
(b) [Co(NH₃)₃(H₂0)Cl₃]
(c) [Co(NH2)₃(H₂0)₂Cl]
(d) [Co(NH₃)₃(H₂0)₃]Cl₃

59. In the silver plating of copper, K[Ag(CN)₂] is used instead of AgN0₃. The reason is (2002)
(a) a thin layer of Ag is formed on Cu
(b) more voltage is required
(c) Ag⁺ ions are completely removed from solution
(d) less availability of Ag⁺ ions, as Cu can not displace Ag from [Ag(CN)₂]^– ion.

60. CuS0₄ when reacts with KCN forms CuCN, which is insoluble in water. It is soluble in excess of KCN, due to formation of the following complex (2002)
(a) K₂[Cu(CN)₄]
(b) K₃[Cu(CN)₄]
(c) CuCN₂
(d) Cu(KCu(CN)₄]

61. Which of the following will give maximum number of isomers? (2001)

62. Coordination number of Ni in [Ni(C₂0₄)₃]^4- is (2001)
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2

63. Which of the following organometallic compounds is σ and π bonded? (2001)

64. Which statement is incorrect? (2001)
(a) Ni(CO)₄ – tetrahedral, paramagnetic
(b) Ni(CN)₄^2- – square planar, diamagnetic
(c) Ni(CO)₄ – tetrahedral, diamagnetic
(d) [Ni(Cl)4]^2- – tetrahedral, paramagnetic.

65. Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic conductivity? (2001)

66. Shape of Fe(CO)₅ is (2000)
(a) octahedral
(b) square planar
(c) trigonal bipyramidal
(d) square pyramidal.

67. Which complex compound will give four isomers? (2000)

68. The total number of possible isomers for the complex compound [Cu¹¹(NH₃)₄][Pt¹¹Cl₄] are (1998)
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 4

69. A coordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formula containing five ammonia molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution. On reacting this solution with excess of AgN0₃ solution, we get two moles of AgCl precipitate. The ionic formula for this complex would be (1998)

70. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH₃)₃(Br)(N0₂)Cl]Cl is (1998)
(a) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum(IV) chloride
(b) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum(IV) chloride
(c) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum(IV) chloride
(d) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum(IV) chloride

71. The formula of dichlorobis(urea)copper(II) is (1997)

72. The number of geometrical isomers of the complex [CO(N0₂)₃(NH₃)₃] is (1997)
(a) 4
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3

73. The structure and hybridisation of Si(CH₃)₄ is (1996)
(a) octahedral, sp³d
(b) tetrahedral, sp³
(c) bent, sp
(d) trigonal, sp².

74. The coordination number and oxidation state of Cr in K₃Cr(C₂0₄)₃ are respectively (1995)
(a) 3 and + 3
(b) 3 and 0
(c) 6 and + 3
(d) 4 and + 2

75. The number of geometrical isomers for [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] is (1995)
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2

76. In metal carbonyl having general formula M(CO)_x where M= metal, x = 4 and the metal is bonded to (1995)
(a) carbon and oxygen
(b) C ≡ O
(c) oxygen
(d) carbon.

77. Which of the following ligands is expected to be bidentate? (1994)
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) CH₃C≡ N
(c) Br
(d) C₂0₄^2-

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – d-and f-Block Elements

May 1, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – d-and f-Block Elements

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1. Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMn0₄ solution. (NEET 2017)
(a) S0₂
(b) N0₂
(c) P₂0₅
(d) C0₂

2. HgCl₂ and I₂ both when dissolved in water containing I^– ions, the pair of species formed is (NEET 2017)
(a) Hgl₂ , I^–
(b) Hgl₄^2- , I₃^–
(c) Hg₂l₂, I^–
(d) Hgl₂ , I₃^–

3. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to (NEET 2017)
(a) actinoid contraction
(b) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
(c) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
(d) the radioactive nature of actinoids.

4. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect? (NEET-II 2016)
(a) Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
(b) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
(c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium.
(d) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.

5. Which one of the following statements is correct when SO₂ is passed through acidified K₂Cr₂0₇ solution? (NEET-I 2016)
(a) SO₂is reduced.
(b) Green Cr₂ (S0₄ )₃ is formed.
(c) The solution turns blue.
(d) The solution is decolourised.

6. The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are (NEET-I 2016)
(a) [Xe]4f⁶ 5d¹ 6s² ,[Xe]4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s² and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²
(b) [Xe]4f⁷ 6s², [Xe]4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s² and [Xe]4f⁹ 6s²
(c) [Xe]4f⁷ 6s², [Xe]4f⁸ 6s² and [Xe]4f⁸ 5d¹ 6s²
(d) [Xe]4f⁶ 5d¹ 6s², [Xe]4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s² and [Xe]4f⁹ 6s²

7. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium? (2015)
(a) [Xe] 4f⁹5s¹
(b) [Xe] 4f⁷5d¹6s²
(c) [Xe] 4f⁶5d²6s²
(d) [Xe] 4f⁸6d²

8. Assuming complete ionisation, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the least amount of acidified KMn0₄ for complete oxidation? (2015)
(a) FeSO₃
(b) FeC₂0₄
(c) Fe(NO₂)₂
(d) FeS0₄

9. Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by (At. nos. Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27) (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Cr²⁺
(b) Co²⁺
(c) Ni²⁺
(d) Ti³⁺

10. Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Formation of Fe(CO)₅ from Fe.
(b) Liberation of H₂ from steam by iron at high temperature.
(c) Rusting of iron sheets.
(d) Decolourisation of blue CuS0₄ solution by iron.

11. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers) (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Zr(40) and Hf(72)
(b) Zr(40) and Ta(73)
(c) Ti(22) and Zr(40)
(d) Zr(40) and Nb(41)

12. The reaction of aqueous KMn0₄ with H₂0₂ in acidic conditions gives (2014)
(a) Mn⁴⁺and O₂
(b) Mn²⁺ and 0₂
(c) Mn²⁺ and 0₃
(d) Mn⁴⁺ and MnO₂

13. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions? (2014)
(At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
(a) Ti³⁺
(b) Ni²⁺
(c) Cr³⁺
(d) Mn²⁺

14. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is (2014)
(a) negligible screening effect of ‘f’-orbitals
(b) increasing nuclear charge
(c) decreasing nuclear charge
(d) decreasing screening effect.

15. Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect? (NEET 2013)
(a) They are much harder than the pure metal.
(b) They have higher melting points than the pure metal.
(c) They retain metallic conductivity.
(d) They are chemically reactive.

16. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic? (NEET 2013)
(At. nos. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)
(a) EU²⁺
(b) Yb²⁺
(c) Ce²⁺
(d) Sm²⁺

17. Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium. (NEET 2013)
(a) Na₂S > CuS > ZnS
(b) Na₂S > ZnS > CuS
(c) CuS > ZnS > Na₂S
(d) ZnS > Na₂S > CuS

18. Sc (Z = 21) is a transition element but Zn (Z = 30) is not because (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) both Sc³⁺and Zn²⁺ ions are colourless and form white compounds.
(b) in case of Sc, 3d orbitals are partially filled but in Zn these are filled.
(c) last electron is assumed to be added to 4s level in case of Zn.
(d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states.

19. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it. (2012)
(a) Invar
(b) Steel
(c) Bell metal
(d) Bronze

20. Which of the statements is not true? (2012)
(a) On passing H₂S through acidified K₂Cr₂0₇ solution, a milky colour is observed.
(b) Na₂Cr₂0₇ is preferred over K₂Cr₂0₇ in volumetric analysis.
(c) K₂Cr₂0₇ solution in acidic medium is orange.
(d) K₂Cr₂0₇ solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7.

21. The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to (Mains 2012)
(a) their magnetic behaviour
(b) their unfilled d-orbitals
(c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
(d) their chemical reactivity

22. Which of the following exhibits only + 3 oxidation state? (Mains 2012)
(a) U
(b) Th
(c) Ac
(d) Pa

23. Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it? (Mains 2012)
(a) Ti < V < Cr < Mn; increasing number of oxidation states
(b) Ti³⁺ < V³⁺ < Cr³⁺ < Mn³⁺ : increasing magnetic moment
(c) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points
(d) Ti < V < Mn < Cr: increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

24. Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which one of them the standard potential (E°M²⁺/M) value has a positive sign? (Mains 2012)
(a) Co (Z = 27)
(b) Ni (Z = 28)
(c) Cu (Z = 29)
(d) Fe (Z = 26)

25. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order? (2011)
(a) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
(b) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
(c) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
(d) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
(At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

26. Acidified K₂Cr₂0₇ solution turns green when Na₂S0₃ is added to it. This is due to the formation of (2011)
(a) Cr₂(S0₄)₃
(b) CrO₄^2-
(c) Cr₂(S0₃)₃
(d) CrS0₄

27. Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions? (2010)
(a) La³⁺ (Z= 57)
(b) Ti³⁺ (Z= 22)
(c) Lu³⁺ (Z = 71)
(d) Sc³⁺ (Z = 21)

28. Which of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar]3d⁶? (2010)
(a) Ni³⁺
(b) Mn³⁺
(c) Fe³⁺
(d) Co³⁺
(At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)

29. Which of the following pairs has the same size? (2010)
(a) Fe²⁺, Ni²⁺
(b) Zr⁴⁺, Ti⁴⁺
(c) Zr⁴⁺, Hf⁴⁺
(d) Zn²⁺, Hf⁴⁺

30. Match List I (substances) with List II (processes) employed in the manufacture of the substances and select the correct option. (Mains 2010)

(a) A – (i), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (iii)
(b) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(c) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(d) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)

31. Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids? (Maim 2010)
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 3

32. Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of oxidation states? (2009)
(a) 3d⁵4s¹
(b) 3d⁵4s²
(c) 3d²4s²
(d) 3d³4s²

33. The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) and Mn(25) is (2008)
(a) Mn > Cr> Ti > V
(b) Ti>V>Cr>Mn
(c) Cr > Mn > V > Ti
(d) V>Mn>Cr>Ti

34. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution? (2007)
(At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
(a) V³⁺
(b) Ti³⁺
(c) Mn³⁺
(d) Cr³⁺

35. Identify the incorrect statement among the following: (2007)
(a) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages.
(b) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements.
(c) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
(d) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.

36. In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution? (2006)
(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)
(a) Ni²⁺, Cu⁺
(b) Ni²⁺, Ti³⁺
(c) Sc³⁺, Ti³⁺
(d) Sc³⁺, Co²⁺.

37. Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give (2006)
(a) CU(CN)₂
(b) CuCN
(c) [Cu(CN)₄]^3-
(d) [CU(CN)₄]^2-

38. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main reason for this is (2006, 2005)
(a) more active nature of the actinoids
(b) more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(c) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
(d) greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids.

39. The number of moles of KMn0₄ reduced by one mole of KI in alkaline medium is (2005)
(a) one
(b) two
(c) five
(d) one fifth.

40. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one ofthem.is expected to have the highest third ionisation enthalpy? (2005)
(a) Vanadium (Z = 23)
(b) Chromium (Z = 24)
(c) Manganese (Z = 25)
(d) Iron (Z= 26)

41. The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless? (2005)
(Atomic number : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)
(a) Sc³⁺
(b) Fe²⁺
(c) Ti³⁺
(d) Mn²⁺

42. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic configuration is (2004)
[At. nos. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25]
(a) Ti³⁺, V²⁺, Cr³⁺, Mn⁴⁺ .
(b) Ti⁺, V⁴⁺, Cr⁶⁺, Mn⁷⁺
(c) Ti⁴⁺, V³⁺, Cr²⁺, Mn³⁺
(d) Ti²⁺, V³⁺, Cr⁴⁺, Mn⁵⁺

43. Lanthanoids are (2004)
(a) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublevel
(b) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic number = 90 to 103) that are filling 5f sublevel
(c) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic number = 58 to 71) that are filling the 4f sublevel
(d) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic number = 50 to 71) that are filling 4f sublevel.

44. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic activity? (2003)
(a) High enthalpy of atomization
(b) Paramagnetic behaviour
(c) Colour of hydrated ions
(d) Variable oxidation states

45. The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order (2003)
(Atomic no’s. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)
(a) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
(b) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
(c) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
(d) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO

46. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3″, EU3+ and Lu3+ is (2003)
(Atomic nos. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71)
(a) Y³⁺ < La³⁺ < Eu³⁺ < Lu³⁺
(b) Y³⁺ < Lu³⁺ < Eu³⁺ < La³⁺
(c) Lu³⁺ < Eu³⁺ < La³⁺ < Y³⁺
(d) La³⁺ < Eu³⁺ < Lu³⁺ < Y³⁺

47. General electronic configuration of lanthanides is (2002)
(a) (n – 2) f^1-14 (n – 1) s²p⁶d^0-1 ns²
(b) {n – 2)f^10-14 (n – 1) d^0-1 ns²
(c) (n – 2)f^0-14 (n – 1) d¹⁰ ns²
(d) (n – 2) d^0-1(n – 1) f^1-14 ns²

48. An atom has electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d³ 4s², you will place it in (2002)
(a) fifth
(b) fifteenth
(c) second
(d) third.

49. Which of the following shows maximum number of oxidation states? (2002, 2000, 1994)
(a) Cr
(b) Fe
(c) Mn
(d) V

50. Zn gives H₂ gas with H₂S0₄ and HCl but not with HN0₃ because (2002)
(a) Zn act as oxidising agent when react with HNO₃
(b) HN0₃ is weaker acid than H₂S0₄ and HCl
(c) In electrochemical series Zn is above hydrogen
(d) NO₃Θ is reduced in preference to hydronium ion.

51. Which of the following statement is not correct? (2001)
(a) La(OH)₃ is less basic than Lu(OH)₃
(b) In lanthanide series ionic radius of Lu⁺³ ion decreases.
(c) La is actually an element of transition series rather lanthanides.
(d) Atomic radius of Zn and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction.

52. The most convenient method to protect the bottom of ship made of iron is (2001)
(a) coating it with red lead oxide
(b) white tin plating
(c) connecting it with Mg block
(d) connecting it with Pb block.

53. Which ion is colourless? (2000)
(a) Cr⁴⁺
(b) Sc³⁺
(c) Ti³⁺
(d) V³⁺

54. Which of the following configuration is correct for iron? (1999)
(a) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²3d⁷
(b) 1s²2s²2p²3s²3p²4s²3d⁵
(c) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d⁵
(d) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²3d⁶

55. Which of the following has more unpaired d-electrons? (1999)
(a) N³⁺
(b) Fe²⁺
(c) Zn⁺
(d) Cu⁺

56. Bell metal is an alloy of (1999)
(a) Cu + Zn
(b) Cu + Sn
(c) Cu+Pb
(d) Cu + Ni

57. In which of the following compounds transition metal has zero oxidation state? (1999)
(a) NOCIO₄
(b) NH₂.NH₂
(c) Cr0₅
(d) [Fe(CO)₅]

58. Which one of the following elements constitutes a major impurity in pig iron? (1998)
(a) Sulphur
(b) Oxygen
(c) Silicon
(d) Carbon

59. Which one of the following ionic species will impart colour to an aqueous solution? (1998)
(a) Zn²⁺
(b) Cu⁺
(c) Ti⁴⁺
(d) Cr³⁺

60. Which one of the following elements shows maximum number of different oxidation states in its compounds? (1998)
(a) Gd
(b) La
(c) Eu
(d) Am

61. Without losing its concentration, ZnCl₂ solution cannot be kept in contact with (1998)
(a) Pb
(b) A1
(c) Au
(d) Ag

62. Which of the following does not represent the correct order of the property indicated? (1997)
(a) Mn²⁺ > Ni²⁺ < Co²⁺ < Fe²⁺
(b) Fe²⁺ > Co²⁺ > Ni²⁺ > Cu²⁺
(c) Ni²⁺ > Cr²⁺ > Fe²⁺ > Mn²⁺
(d) Se > Ti > Cr > Mn

63. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that (1997)
(a) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(b) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
(c) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(d) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state.

64. Which of the following element is responsible for oxidation of water to 0₂ in biological processes? (1997)
(a) Cu
(b) Mo
(c) Fe
(d) Mn

65. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic No = 64) is (1997)
(a) [Xe] 4f³5d⁵ 6s²
(b) [Xe] 4f⁶ 5d² 6d²
(c) [Xe 4f⁸ 5d⁹ 6s²
(d) [Xe] 4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s²

66. K₂Cr₂0₇ on heating with aqueous NaOH gives (1997)
(a) Cr₂0₇^2-
(b) Cr(OH)₂
(c) CrO₄^2-
(d) Cr(OH)₃

67. A transition element X has a configuration [Ar]3d⁴ in its +3 oxidation state. Its atomic number is (1996)
(a) 22
(b) 19
(c) 25
(d) 26

68. When calomel reacts with NH4OH, we get (1996)
(a) Hg₂0
(b) HgO
(c) HgNH₂Cl
(d) NH₂-Hg-Hg-Cl

69. The electronic configuration of transition elements is exhibited by (1996)
(a) ns¹
(b) ns²np⁵
(c) ns²(n – 1)d^1-10
(d) ns² (n – 1)d¹⁰

70. KMn04 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation 2MnO₄^–; + 5C₂O₄^2- + 16H⁺—->2Mn²⁺+ 10CO₂+ 8H₂0 Here 20 mL of 0.1 M KMn0₄ is equivalent to (1996)
(a) 50 mL of 0.5 M C₂H₂0₄
(b) 20 mL of 0.1 M C₂H₂0₄
(c) 20 mL of 0.5 M C₂H₂0₄
(d) 50 mL of 0.1 M C₂H₂0₄

71. Amongst TiF₆^2- C0F₆^3- ,Cu₂Cl₂ and NiCl₄^2-L which are the colourless species? (atomic number of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) (1995)
(a) CoF₆^3- and NiCl₄^2-
(b) TiF₆^2- and Cu₂Cl₂
(c) Cu₂Cl₂ and NiCl₄^2-
(d) TiF₆^2- and CoF₆^3-

72. The mercury is the only metal which is liquid at 0°C. This is due to its (1995)
(a) high vapour pressure
(b) weak metallic bond
(c) high ionization energy
(d) both (b) and (c).

73. Which of the following statement concerning lanthanide elements is false? (1994)
(a) All lanthanides are highly dense metals.
(b) More characteristic oxidation state of lanthanide elements is +3.
(c) Lanthanides are separated from one another by ion exchange method.
(d) Ionic radii of trivalent lanthanides steadily increases with increase in the atomic number.

74. To protect iron against corrosion, the most durable metal plating on it, is (1994)
(a) copper plating
(b) zinc plating
(c) nickel plating
(d) tin plating.

75. When CuS0₄ is electrolysed using platinum electrodes, (1993)
(a) copper is liberated at cathode, sulphur at anode
(b) copper is liberated at cathode, oxygen at anode
(c) sulphur is liberated at cathode, oxygen at anode
(d) oxygen is liberated at cathode, copper at anode.

76. The transition elements have a general electronic configuration (1991)
(a) ns²np⁶nd^1-10
(b) (n-1)d^1-10, ns^0-2, np^0-6
(c) (n-1)d^1-10, ns^1-2
(d) nd^1-10 ns^-2

77. Photographic films and plates have an essential ingredient of (1989)
(a) silver nitrate
(b) silver bromide
(c) sodium chloride
(d) oleic acid.

78. Nitriding is the process of surface hardening of steel by treating it is an atmosphere of (1989)
(a) NH₃
(b) 0₃
(c) N₂
(d) H₂S.

79. While extracting an element from its ore, the ore is ground and leached with dil. potassium cyanide solution to form the soluble product j potassium argentocyanide. The element is (1989)
(a) lead
(b) chromium
(c) manganese
(d) silver.

80. A blue colouration is not obtained when (1989)
(a) ammonium hydroxide dissolves in copper sulphate
(b) copper sulphate solution reacts with K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
(c) ferric chloride reacts with sod. ferrocyanide
(d) anhydrous CuS0₄ is dissolved in water.

81. The electronic configurations of four elements are given below. Which element does not belong to the same family as others? (1989)
(a) [Xe]4f¹⁴5d¹⁰6s²
(b) [Kr]4d¹⁰5s²
(c) [Ne]3s²3p⁵
(d) [Ar]3d¹⁰4s²

82. The oxidation state of Cr in K₂Cr₂0₇ is (1988)
(a) +5
(b) +3
(c) +6
(d) +7

83. Hypo is used in photography to (1988)
(a) reduce AgBr grains to metallic silver
(b) convert metallic silver to silver salt
(c) remove undecomposed silver bromide as a soluble complex
(d) remove reduced silver.

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – p-Block Elements (Group 15 to 18)

April 30, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – p-Block Elements (Group 15 to 18)

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1.Match the interhalogen compounds of column-I with the geometry in column-II and assign the correct code. (NEET 2017)

2.In which pair of ions both the species contain S — S bond? (NEET 2017)
(a) S₄0₆^2-, S₂0₃^2-
(b) S₂0₇^2-, S₂0₈^2-
(c) S₄0₆^2-, S₂0₇^2-
(d) S₂O₇^2-,S₂O₃^2-

3.Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. (NEET-1 2016)

4.Which is the correct statement for the given acids? (NEET-1 2016)
(a) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
(b) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.
(c) Both are diprotic acids.
(d) Both are triprotic acids.

5.Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules? (NEET-1 2016)
(a) Br₂>I₂>F₂>Cl₂
(b) F₂>Cl₂>Br₂>I₂
(c) I₂>Br₂>Cl₂>F₂
(d) Cl₂>Br₂>F₂>I₂

6.When copper is heated with cone. HN0₃ it produces (NEET-1 2016)
(a) CU(N0₃)₂ NO and N0₂
(b) CU(N0₃)₂ and N₂0
(c) Cu(N0₃)₂ and N0₂
(d) CU(N0₃)₂ and NO

7.Among the following, the correct order of acidity is (NEET-1 2016)
(a) HCIO₂<HCIO<HCIO₃<HCIO₄
(b) HCIO₄<HCIO₂<HCIO<HCIO₃
(c) HCIO₃ < HCIO₄ < HCIO₂ < HCIO
(d) HCIO<HCIO₂<HCIO₃<HCIO₄

8.Strong reducing behaviour of H₃P0₂ is due to (2015)
(a) high electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
(b) high oxidation state of phosphorus
(c) presence of two -OH groups and one P—H bond
(d) presence of one -OH group and two P—H bonds.

9.The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl. What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride? (2015)
(a) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules.
(b) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides.
(c) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF molecule.
(d) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the group.

10. Which of the statements given below is incorrect? (2015)
(a) 0₃ molecule is bent.
(b) ONF is isoelectronic with 0₂N^–
(c) OF₂ is an oxide of fluorine.
(d) Cl₂0₇ is an anhydride of perchloric acid.

11. The formation of the oxide ion, O^2- (g) from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below :
O(g) + e^–—> O^–(g); Δ_fH° =-141 kJ mol^-1
O^– (g)+ e^–—-> 0^2-(g); Δ_fH° = +780 kJ mol^-1
Thus, process of formation of 0^2- in gas phase is unfavourable even though O^2- is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that, (2015)
(a) 0^– ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom
(b) oxygen is more electronegative
(c) addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion
(d) electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.

12. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties in common. Which property is shown by one of these compounds, but not by the other? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Is soluble in water.
(b) Is used as a food preservative.
(c) Forms ‘acid-rain’.
(d) Is a reducing agent.

13. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order (2014)
(a) H₂S<H₂Se<H₂Te
(b) H₂Se<H₂S<H₂Te
(c) H₂Te<H₂S<H₂Se
(d) H₂Se < H₂Te < H₂S

14. Which is the strongest acid in the following? (NEET 2013)
(a) HCIO₄
(b) H₂S0₃
(c) H₂S0₄
(d) HCIO₃

15. Which one of the following molecules contains no π bond? (NEET 2013)
(a) S0₂
(b) N0₂
(c) C0₂
(d) H₂0

16. Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating? (NEET 2013) ‘
(a) K₂Cr₂0₇
(b) (NH₄)₂Cr₂0₇
(c) KCIO₃
(d) Zn(CIO₃)₂

17. Identify the incorrect statement, regarding the molecule Xe0₄ : (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) Xe0₄ molecule is square planar.
(b) There are four pπ – dπ bonds.
(c) There are four sp³ – p, σ bonds.
(d) Xe0₄ molecule is tetrahedral.

18. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state? (2012)
(a) N₂H₄
(b) NH₃
(c) N₃H
(d) NH₂OH

19. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus? (2012)
(a) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate.
(b) Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.
(c) All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus.
(d) All oxoacids contain atleast one P=0 unit and one P—OH group.

20. Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction? (2012)
(a) CaS0₄ + C–Δ–>
(b) Fe₂(S0₄)₃ –Δ–>
(c) S + H₂S0₄ –Δ–>
(d) H₂S0₄ + PCl₅ –Δ–>

21. In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it? (Mains 2012)
(a) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength
(b) H₂0 < H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te : increasing pK_a values
(c) NH₃ < PH₃ < AsH₃ < SbH₃ : increasing acidic character
(d) C0₂ < Si0₂ < Sn0₂ < Pb0₂ : increasing oxidising power

22. Oxidation states of P in H₄P₂0₅, H₄P₂0₆, H₄P₂0₇ are respectively (2010)
(a) +3,+5,+4
(b) +5,+3,+4
(c) +5,+4,+3
(d) +3,+4,+5

23. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is (2010)
(a) Cl₂0 < Clo₂ < Clo₂^–
(b) Cl0₂ < Cl₂0 < Clo₂^–
(c) Cl₂0 < Clo₂^– < Clo₂
(d) Clo₂^– < Cl₂0 < Clo₂

24. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P₄O₁₀? (Mains 2010)
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5

25. Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent? (2009)
(a) Br₂
(b) I₂
(c) Cl₂
(d) F₂

26. The angular shape of ozone molecule (0₃) consists of (2008)
(a) lσ and 1π bond
(b) 2σ and 1π bond
(c) lσ and 2π bonds
(d) 2σ and 2π bonds

27. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids? (2007, 2005)
(a) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3< HOClO₂
(b) HOClO₂<HOClO₃<HOClO<HOCI
(c) HOClO₃ < HOClO₂ < HOClO < HOCl
(d) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO₂ < HOClO₃

28. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH₃ (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This is because (2006)
(a) in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF₃ these are in the same direction
(b) in NH₃ as well as in NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
(c) in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF₃ these are in opposite directions
(d) in NH₃ as well as in NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions.

29. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it? (2006)
(a) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂: Bond dissociation energy
(b) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Oxidising power
(c) HI > HBr > HCl > HF: Acidic property in water
(d) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Electronegativity.

30. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds are not equal? (2006)
(a) NF₃
(b) ClF₃
(c) BF₃
(d) AlF₃

31. What is the correct relationship between the pH of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide, Na₂0 (pH₁), sodium sulphide, Na₂S (pH₂), sodium selenide, Na₂Se (pH₃) and sodium telluride Na₂Te (pH₄)? (2005)
(a) pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ > pH₄
(b) pH₁ > pH₂ = PH₃ > pH₄
(c) pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ < pH₄
(d) pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ = pH₄

32. Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour? (2005)
(a) C0₂
(b) Si0₂
(c) S0₂
(d) Clo₂

33. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment? (2005)
(a) SiF₄
(b) SF₄
(c) XeF₄
(d) BF₃

34. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can form more than one binary compound with chlorine is (2004)
(a) Fe
(b) Zn
(c) K
(d) Ca

35. Which of the following statement is true? (2002)
(a) Silicon exhibits 4 coordination number in its compound.
(b) Bond energy of F₂ is less than Cl₂.
(c) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than Mn(II) in aqueous state.
(d) Elements of 15th gp shows only + 3 and +5 oxidation states.

36. Which of the following order is wrong? (2002)
(a) NH₃ < PH₃ < ASH₃ – acidic
(b) Li < Be < B < C – 1st IP
(c) Al₂0₃ < MgO < Na₂0 < K₂0 – basic
(d) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ – ionic radius.

37. Correct order of 1st ionisation potential among following elements Be, B, C, N, O is (2001)
(a) B < Be < C < O < N
(b) B<Be<C<N<0
(c) Be < B < C < N < O
(d) Be < B < C < O < N

38. Which compound has planar structure? (2000)
(a) XeF₄
(b) XeOF₂
(c) Xe0₂F₂
(d) Xe0₄

39. Which of the following oxides is most acidic? (1999)
(a) As₂0₅
(b) P₂0₅
(c) N₂0₅
(d) Sb₂O₅

40. Which of the following phosphorus is the most reactive? (1999)
(a) Scarlet phosphorus
(b) White phosphorus
(c) Red phosphorus
(d) Violet phosphorus

41. Which of the following is used in the preparation of chlorine? (1999)
(a) Both Mn0₂ and KMn0₄
(b) Only KMn0₄
(c) Only Mn0₂
(d) Either Mn0₂ or KMn0₄

42. Repeated use of which one of the following fertilizers would increase the acidity of the soil? (1998)
(a) Ammonium sulphate
(b) Superphosphate of lime
(c) Urea
(d) Potassium nitrate

43. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment? (1997)
(a) SbH₃
(b) ASH₃
(c) NH₃
(d) PH₃

44. The structural formula of hypophosphorous acid is (1997)

45. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy? (1996)
(a) S-S
(b) 0-0
(c) Se-Se
(d) Te-Te

46. The basic character of hydrides of the V group elements decreases in the order (1996)
(a) NH₃ > PH₃ > ASH₃ > SbH₃
(b) SbH₃ > ASH₃ > PH₃ > NH₃
(c) SbH₃ > PH₃ > ASH₃ > NH₃
(d) NH₃ > SbH₃ > PH₃ > ASH₃

47. Among the following oxides, the lowest acidic is (1996)
(a) AS₄0₆
(b) AS₄O₁₀
(c) P₄0₆
(d) P₄O₁₀

48. Which of the following has the greatest electron affinity? (1996)
(a) I
(b) Br
(c) F
(d) Cl

49. Which of the following represents calcium chlorite? (1996)
(a) Ca(Clo₃)₂
(b) Ca(Clo₂)₂
(c) CaClo₂
(d) Ca(Clo₄)₂

50. Reaction of sodium thiosulphate with iodine gives (1996)
(a) tetrathionate ion
(b) sulphide ion
(c) sulphate ion
(d) sulphite ion.

51. About 20 km above the earth, there is an ozone layer. Which one of the following statements about ozone and ozone layer is true? (1995)
(a) It is beneficial to us as it stops U.V. radiation
(b) Conversion of 0₃ to 0₂ is an endothermic reaction.
(c) Ozone has a triatomic linear molecule
(d) It is harmful as it stops userful radiation

52. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³. What is the atomic number of the element, which is just below the above element in the periodic table? (1995)
(a) 36
(b) 49
(c) 33
(d) 34

53. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is paramagnetic? (1994)
(a) N0₂
(b) N₂0₃
(c) N₂0
(d) N₂0₅

54. Which of the following displaces Br₂ from an aqueous solution containing bromide ions? (1994)
(a) I₂
(b) I₃^–
(c) Cl₂
(d) Cl^–

55. Which of the following fluorides does not exist? (1993)
(a) NF₅
(b) PF₅
(c) AsF₅
(d) SbF₅

56. Which of the following species has four lone pairs of electrons? (1993)
(a) I
(b) O
(c) Cl^–
(d) He

57. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions? (1993)
(a) Ga, Ni, Tl
(b) Na, Mg, Al
(c) N, O, F
(d) V, Cr, Mn.

58. A solution of potassium bromide is treated with each of the following. Which one would liberate bromine? (1993)
(a) Hydrogen iodide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Chlorine
(d) Iodine

59. Which of the following elements is extracted commercially by the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its compound? (1993)
(a) Cl
(b) Br
(c) Al
(d) Na

60. Number of electrons shared in the formation of nitrogen molecule is (1992)
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 8

61. Sugarcane on reaction with nitric acid gives (1992)
(a) C0₂ and S0₂
(b) (COOH)₂
(c) 2HCOOH(two moles)
(d) no reaction.

62. Nitrogen is relatively inactive element because (1992)
(a) its atom has a stable electronic configuration
(b) it has low atomic radius
(c) its electronegativity is fairly high
(d) dissociation energy of its molecule is fairly high.

63. H₃P0₂ is the molecular formula of an acid of phosphorus. Its name and basicity respectively (1992)
(a) phosphorous acid and two
(b) hypophosphorous acid and two
(c) hypophosphorous acid and one
(d) hypophosphoric acid and two.

64. Which of the following bonds will be most polar? (1992)
(a) N – Cl
(b) O-F
(c) N-F
(d) N-N

65. Elements of which of the following groups will form anions most readily? (1992)
(a) Oxygen family
(b) Nitrogen family
(c) Halogens
(d) Alkali metals

66. Strongest hydrogen bonding is shown by (1992)
(a) water
(b) ammonia
(c) hydrogen fluoride
(d) hydrogen sulphide.

67. When chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at room temperature, the main reaction product is (1992)
(a) Ca(Clo₂)₂
(b) CaCl₂
(c) CaOCl₂
(d) Ca(OCl)₂

68. In the manufacture of bromine from sea water, the mother liquor containing bromides is treated with (1992)
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) chlorine
(c) iodine
(d) sulphur dioxide.

69. Which would quickly absorb oxygen? (1991)
(a) Alkaline solution of pyrogallol
(b) Cone. H₂S0₄
(c) Lime water
(d) Alkaline solution of CuS0₄.

70. Oleum is (1991)
(a) castor oil
(b) oil of vitriol
(c) fuming H₂S0₄
(d) none of these.

71. Aqueous solution of ammonia consists of (1991)
(a) H⁺
(b) OH^–
(c) NH₄⁺
(d) NH₄⁺ and OH^– .

72. P₂0₅ is heated with water to give (1991)
(a) hypophosphorous acid
(b) phosphorous acid
(c) hypophosphoric acid
(d) orthophosphoric acid.

73. Basicity of orthophosphoric acid is (1991)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

74. PCl₃ reacts with water to form(1991)
(a) PH₃
(b) H₃P0₃,HCl
(c) POCl₃
(d) H₃P0₄

75. PH₄I + NaOH forms (1991)
(a) PH₃
(b) NH₃
(c) P₄0₆
(d) P₄O₁₀

76. Pure nitrogen is prepared in the laboratory by heating a mixture of (1991)
(a) NH₄OH + NaCl
(b) NH₄NO₃+NaCl
(c) NH₄Cl + NaOH
(d) NH₄Cl+NaNO₂

77. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to (1991)
(a) reduction
(b) hydrogenation
(c) chlorination
(d) oxidation.

78. Which of the following statement is not correct for nitrogen? (1990)
(a) Its electronegativity is very high.
(b) d-orbitals are available for bonding.
(c) It is a typical non-metal.
(d) Its molecular size is small.

79. Which of the following compound does not exist? (1989)
(a) NCl₅
(b) AsF₅
(c) SbCl₅
(d) PF₅

80. Each of the following is true for white and red phosphorus except that they (1989)
(a) are both soluble in CS₂
(b) can be oxidised by heating in air
(c) consist of the same kind of atoms
(d) can be converted into one another.

81. When orthophosphoric acid is heated to 600°C, the product formed is (1989)
(a) PH₃
(b) P₂0₅
(c) H₃P0₃
(d) HP0₃

82. Which one has the lowest boiling point? (1989)
(a) NH₃
(b) PH₃
(c) AsH₃
(d) SbH₃

83.Oxygen will directly react with each of the following elements except (1989)
(a) P
(b) a
(c) Na
(d) S

84. The gases respectively absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol and oil of cinnamon are (1989)
(a) 0₃, CH₄
(b) 0₂, 0₃
(c) S0₂,CH₄
(d) N₂0, 0₃.

85. It is possible to obtain oxygen from air by fractional distillation because (1989)
(a) oxygen is in a different group of the periodic table from nitrogen
(b) oxygen is more reactive than nitrogen
(c) oxygen has higher b.p. than nitrogen
(d) oxygen has a lower density than nitrogen.

86. Bleaching powder reacts with a few drops of cone. HCl to give (1989)
(a) chlorine
(b) hypochlorous acid
(c) calcium oxide
(d) oxygen.

87. Which of the following is a nitric acid anhydride? (1988)
(a) NO
(b) N0₂
(c) N₂0₅
(d) N₂0₃

88. Bleaching powder is obtained by the action of chlorine gas and (1988)
(a) dilute solution of Ca(OH)₂
(b) concentrated solution of Ca(OH)₂
(c) dry CaO
(d) dry slaked lime.

Answer Key

Explanations

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