SSC CHSL Previous Year Solved Papers – 04 November, 2012

SSC CHSL LDC/ DEO/ PSA Previous Year Solved Papers – 04 November, 2012

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SSC CHSL Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level LDC & Data Entry Operator, Exam Solved Paper 04 November, 2012

Part I General Intelligence

Directions (Q.Nos. 1-6) In the questions given below, select the related letters / words / numbers from the given alternatives.

1. Play : Actor : : Concert: ?
(a) Symphony
(b) Musician
(c) Piano
(d) Percussion
Answer:
(b) As, ‘Play’ is perform by an ‘Actor’. Similarly, ‘Concert’ is perform by’Musician’.

2. Book : Paper :: Bread : ?
(a) Flour
(b) Biscuit
(c) Cake
(d) Butter
Answer:
(a) As, ‘Book’ is made by ‘Paper’. Similarly, ‘Bread’ is made by ‘Flour’.

3. QDXM : SFYN : : UIOZ : ?
(a) PAQM
(b) LPWA
(c) QNLA
(d) WKPA
Answer:

4. CDEF : UVWX : : IJKL : ?
(a) ABCD
(b) NOPQ
(c) PQRS
(d) MNOP
Answer:

5. 5 : 100 : : 7 : ?
(a) 49
(b) 196
(c) 91
(d) 98
Answer:

6. 16 : 22 : : 36 : ?
(a) 24
(b) 46
(c) 44
(d) 26
Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 7-11) In the questions given below, select the one which is different from the other three responses.

7.
(a) Petrol
(b) Diesel
(c) Kerosene
(d) LPG
Answer:
(d) Except ‘LPG’, all others are liquids while ‘LPG’ is a Liquified Petroleum Gas.

8.
(a) Power
(b) Pressure
(c) Energy
(d) Erg
Answer:
(d) Except ‘Erg’, all others are different quantities while ‘Erg’ is the unit of force.

9.
(a) ACF
(b)EGI
(c) IKN
(d) MOR
Answer:

10.
(a) QRP
(c) NEM
(b) RUQ
(d) MAL
Answer:

11.
(a) 126
(b) 215
(c) 342
(d) 511
Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 12 and 13) In the questions given below, which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

12. 1. Flower 2. Seed 4. Fruits 3. Plant 5. Branches 6. Tree
(a) 2, 3, 6, 5,1,4
(b) 2, 6, 3,1,4,5
(c) 2, 1,4, 6, 5,3
(d) 2,1,3, 6, 5,4
Answer:

13. 1. Wrist 2. Arm 3. Shoulder 4. Finger 5. Palm 6. Nail
(a) 6,4,5,2,1,3
(b) 3,2, 5,1,4,6
(c) 5, 4,6,1,2,3
(d) 3, 2,1,5, 4, 6
Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 14 and 15) In the questions given below, a series is given, with one number/ letter missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

14. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ?, MLNA
(a) OLPA
(b)KLMA
(c) LLMA
(d) KLLA
Answer:

15. 15, 39, 74, 122, ?, 265
(a) 151
(b) 165
(c) 171
(d) 185
Answer:

16. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
l _ b _ ub _ ubt _ blu _ tub
(a) ubtlu
(b) utlub
(c) tulbu
(d) butlu
Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 17-21) In the questions given below, select the missing number /letter from the given responses.

17.23,24,27,28,31,32,?
(a) 30
(b) 33
(c) 29
(d) 35
Answer:

18.

Answer:

19.

Answer:

20.

Answer:

21. 17, 19, 23, 29, ?
(a) 33
(b) 35
(c) 31
(d) 39
Answer:
(c) Series are increasing in prime number sequence. Hence, 31 will come after 29.

22. Find out the pair of numbers that do not belong to the group for each of common property.
(a) 144-81
(b) 169-600
(c) 196-121
(d) 100-225
Answer:
Except ‘169-600’, all others both number are square numbers.

23. Introducing a girl, Vipin said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law”. How is Vipin related to the girl?
(a) Uncle
(b) Father
(c) Brother
(d) Husband
Answer:

24.The total number of students in class A and class B is 120. If 15 students from class A are taken and added to class B, the number in class B becomes twice that of A. Find out the number of students in class A in the beginning.
(a) 80
(b) 65
(c) 55
(d) 40
Answer:

25. Kannan is the brother of Kumar. Lakshmi is the daughter of Kumar. Kalai is sister of Kannan and Govind is the brother of Lakshmi. Who is the uncle of Govind?
(a) Kumar
(b) Kalai
(c) Lakshmi
(d) Kannan
Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 26 and 27) From the given alternatives, select the word that cannot be formed using the letters of given word.

26. ‘RECOMMENDATION’
(a) COMMENTARY
(b) COMMERCE
(c) COMMEND
(d) MEND
Answer:
(a) Due to absence of letter ‘Y’ the word ‘COMMEN TARY’ cannot be formed.

27. ‘OPERATION’
(a) RATION
(b) OPERA
(c) RATIO
(d) NATION
Answer:
(d) Due to absence of two letters ’N’ the word ’NATION’ cannot be formed.

28. If ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘TEKSAB’, how can ‘PILLOW’ be written in that code?
(a) LOWPIL
(b) WOLLIP
(c) LOWLIP
(d) WOLPIL
Answer:

29. In a certain code, ‘TOPPER’ is written as ‘POTREP’. In that code, which word will be written as ‘RUBREG’?
(a) BURGER
(b) BLURBE
(c) BURGET
(d) BEURGR
Answer:

30. If ‘EARN’ is written as ‘GCTP’, how ‘NEAR’ can be written in that code?
(a) CTGP
(b) GPTC
(c) PGCT
(d) PCGT
Answer:

31. Choose the appropriate combination of signs to solve the given equation.
(23 —5)*(12+2)*3*4
(a) + + =
(b) – ÷ =
(c) x ÷ =
(d) + – =
Answer:

32. If’+’ and – signs are interchanged, similarly ‘x’ and ÷ are interchanged, then find the answer of the following equation.
10-2+12×1-5÷0
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer:

33. In the morning, I walked 2 km facing the Sun and stopped. From there, I walked 4 kms on my right hand side, from there I walked 1 km again facing the Sun, from there I walked on my right hand side. In which direction I shall be walking now?
(a) East
(b) South-East
(c) South-West
(d) Right hand side
Answer:

34. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing towards centre. D is between F and B. A is second to the left of D and second to the right of E. Who is facing towards D?
(a) C
(b) A
(c) E
(d) B
Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 35-37) In the questions given below, one I two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statements’?

35. Statement Uneducated people are exploited by
others in the society.
Conclusions
I. People take advantage of uneducated people only.
II. Educated people exploit uneducated persons in society.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion Knot II follows
Answer:
(d) According the statement, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

36. Statements All crows are black.
Some black things are beautiful.
Conclusions
I. Some crows are beautiful.
II. Some beautiful things are black.
(a) Only conclusion! follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Answer:

37.Statement Rakesh is senior to Rajesh and Rajesh is senior to Rahul.
Conclusions
I. Rakesh is senior to Rahul.
II. Rahul is not senior to Rakesh.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Answer:

38. Which number is on the face opposite to 6 in the dice whose four views are given below?

(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4
Answer:
(a) From dice, 1, 2 and 3 numbers 2, 3, 4 and 5 are adjacent to number 6. Hence, number 1 is opposite to 6. .

39. From the following two different appearances dice, find out which colour is opposite to white?

(a) Blue
(b) Black
(c) Yellow
(d) Red
Answer:
(a) From both dices Red and Yellow faces are common. Hence, third colour Blue is opposite to White.

40. How many backward uneducated people are employed according to the figure given below?

(a)14
(b)5
(c)7
(d)11
Answer:
(b) Both circles common number is represented by backward uneducated and employed people. Hence, such peoples are 5.

41. Which of the following answer figures indicates best relation between aeroplanes, train, travel?

Answer:

42. Find the best relationship among the three classes in the following diagrams.

Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 43 and 44) In the questions given below, which answer figure completes the pattern given in the question figure?

43.

Answer:
(c) Answer figure (c) will complete the pattern of the question figure.

44.

Answer:
(b) Answer figure (b) will complete the pattern of the question figure.

45. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.

Answer:

Hence, in answer figure (b) question figure is hidden/ embedded.

46. How many triangles are there in the given question figure?

Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 47 and 48) In the questions given below, a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

47.

Answer:
(c) Answer figure (c) will appear when a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the question figure.

48.

Answer:
(b) Answer figure (b) will appear when a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the question figure.

49. Find out the mirror image of the given figure.

Answer:
(d) Answer figure (d) is the correct mirror image of the question figure.

50. Identify the missing figure to complete the matrix.

Answer:
(d) In each row outer design is removing.

Part II English Language

Directions (Q.Nos. 51-56) In the questions given below, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error corresponding to the appropriate letter (a),(b) , (c). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (d)

51. Many a battle (a)/ were fought (b)/ on the soil of India, (c)/ No Error (d)
Answer:
(b) Use ‘was’ in place of ‘were’ Many a is used with a singular noun and a singular verb.

52. He advised me (a)/ from exerting my self too much (b) / just before the examinations, (c)/ No Error (d)
Answer:
(b) Use ‘not to exert’ in place of ‘from exerting’.

53. The school offers many opportunities (a)/ of meeting helpful people reading useful books (b)/ and obtain information about a variety of public career, (c)/ No Error (d)
Answer:
(c) Use ‘obtaining’ in place of ‘obtain’.

54. Have you got (a)/ all the equipments (b)/ for making films? (c)/ No Error (d)
Answer:
(b) Use ‘equipment’ in place of ‘equipments’.

55. Unless you return the books (a)/ you have borrowed (b) / I will lend you more books, (c)/ No Error (d)
Answer:
(c) Use ‘will not’ in place of ‘will’.

56. Not a word does he know (a)/ of any language (b)/ but his own.(c)/ No Error (d)
Answer:
(d) The sentence is correct.

Directions (Q.Nos. 57-61) In the questions given below, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

57. The healthy silkworms__on the leaves of mulberry.
(a) keep
(b) feed
(c) bring
(d) put
Answer:
(b)

58. He is a careful person, he never takes sides but remains __
(a) unbiased
(b) neutral
(c) prejudiced
(d) impartial
Answer:
(b)

59. His services have been dispensed____
(a) with
(b) of
(c) for
(d) in
Answer:
(a)

60. Mahfuz has an active mind, he can re-tell memories ____any body else in the classroom.
(a) as vivid as
(b) far more vivid than
(c) more vividly than
(d) much vivid than
Answer:
(c)

61. It was ___that Rajiv was going to be excluded from the team as he hadn’t attended any exercise at all.
(a) at hand
(b) out of sight
(c) beyond doubt
(d) in fashion
Answer:
(c)

Directions (Q.Nos. 62-64) In the questions given below, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

62. Mendicant
(a) Reformer
(b) Dealer
(c) Beggar
(d) Adviser
Answer:
(c) Mendicant means ‘living by asking people for money and food’.

63. Instinctive
(a) Helpful
(b) Inherent
(c) Crucial
(d) Strong
Answer:
(b) Instinctive means ‘based on instinct not thought or training’.

64. Clone
(a) Trace
(b) Copy
(c) Make
(d) Mould
Answer:
(b) Clone means ‘an exact copy of something’.

Directions (Q.Nos. 65-67) In the questions given below, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

65. Innate
(a) Acquired
(b) Natural
(c) Inborn
(d) Unusual
Answer:
(a) Innate means ‘a quality, feeling etc., that you have when you are born’. Acquired means ‘to gain something by your own efforts’.

66. Reprisal
(a) Forgiveness
(b) Relief
(c) Exemption
(d) Relaxation
Answer:
(a) Reprisal means ‘a violent or aggressive act towards somebody because of something bad they have done to you’.

67. Hegemony
(a) Control
(b) Leadership
(c) Subordination
(d) Discipline
Answer:
(c) Hegemony means ‘control by one Over others’.

Directions (Q.Nos. 68-72) In the questions given below, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom / Phrase.

68. I told the students to buckle down this semester.
(a) take it easy
(b) drop a subject
(c) work seriously
(d) go for a vacation
Answer:
(c) Buckle down means ‘work seriously’.

69. People are always critical. One needs to have a thick skin to cope with criticism.
(a) be disinterested
(b) be bold
(c) be unaffected
(d) be insensitive
Answer:
(c) To have a thick skin means ‘the ability to accept criticism, insults etc., without being upset’.

70. His behaviour compelled me to give him a piece of my mind.
(a) pardon him
(b) take him into confidence
(c) scold him
(d) make him my friend
Answer:
(c) To give somebody a piece of your mind means to tell somebody that you disapprove of their behaviour or are angry with them.

71. The great warrior Maharana Pratap held ‘the enemy’ at bay, but he was defeated at last.
(a) prevented the enemy to attack his positions
(b) made counter attacks again and again
(c) prevented the enemy to come closer
(d) made the enemy to run away
Answer:
(c) To held the enemy at bay means ‘to prevent the enemy from coming close’.

72. Don’t lose heart, but tide over “dangers and difficulties boldly.
(a) ignore
(b) welcome
(c) retaliate
(d) overcome
Answer:
(d) Tide over means ‘overcome’.

Directions (Q.Nos. 73-79) In the questions given below, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d).

73. He ought not to have done that, oughtn’t he?
(a) has he
(b) did he
(c) ought he
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(c) It should be ‘ought he’.

74. He leapt at the opportunity that come in his way
(a) came to his way
(b) came his way
(c) came on his way
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(b) came his way’ is the appropriate phrase.

75. Fools rush in when angels fear to tread.
(a) because
(b) if
(c) where
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(c) ‘where angels fear to tread’ is the appropriate phrase

76. Take an early breakfast and then you should start your work.
(a) start your work
(b) you should start your work
(c) you should then start your work
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(a) ‘start your work’ is the appropriate phrase in the context of the sentence.

77. The tortures could not make the man recant.
(a) reckon
(b) renew
(c) recur
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(d) The sentence.is correct.

78. Let us make ourselves merry.
(a) make merry
(b) make merry ourselves
(c) ourselves make merry .
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(a) ‘make merry’ is the correct phrase.

79. A humorous incident happened on the way to college.
(a) amusing
(b) dramatic
(c) ridiculous
(d) No improvement
Answer:
(d) The sentence is correct.

Directions (Q.Nos. 80-83) In the questions given below, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words / sentences.

80. Something that occurs irregularly.
(a) Uncommon
(b) Sporadic
(c) Constant
(d) Persistent
Answer:
(b) Sporadic means ‘happening occasion- ally or at intervals that are rypt regular’.

81. Appealing to senses.
(a) Sensual
(b) Sensuous
(c) Sentimental
(d) Sensory
Answer:
(b) Sensuous means ‘giving pleasure to your senses’.

82. Some one who is indifferent and is careless.
(a) Lackadaisical
(b) Perfunctory
(c) Inaccurate
(d) Painstaking
Answer:
(a) Lackadaisical means ‘not showing enough care or enthusiasm.

83. An imaginary world where everything is perfect and everyone is happy.
(a) Wakefulness
(b) Phantom
(c) Rainbow
(d) Utopia
Answer:
(d) Utopia means ‘an imaginary place or state in which everything is perfect’.

Directions (Q.Nos. 84 and 85) In the questions given below, there are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find out the correctly spelt word.

84.
(a) Sargent
(b) Serjent
(c) Sarjeant
(d) Sergeant
Answer:
(d) The correctly spelt word is ‘sergeant’.

85.
(a) Comenttaries
(b) Commentories
(c) Commentaries
(d) Commentries
Answer:
(c) The correctly spelt word is ‘commentaries’.

Directions (Q.Nos. 86-100) In the questions given below, you are to follow two brief Passages with 10 questions in Passage I and 5 questions in Passage II. Read the passages carefully and fill in the blanks with suitable words out of the four alternatives given.

Passage I
Speech is major mode of communication. Conversing with people is an everyday (86). Without conversation, communication would be (87). Therefore, one should (88) develop one’s conversational skill. There are different kinds of conversation. Sometimes one tries to (89) another in conversation just to get (90). In such conversation, meaning (91) matter. When strangers meet, they begin to talk (92) the weather, rain, heat etc. Remarks on these topics are rituals rather than (93) communication. Such remarks are meant to (94) a conversation. Once begun, the conversation could be (95).

86.
(a) thing
(b) occurrence
(c) procedure
(d) duty
Answer:
(a)

87.
(a) tremendous
(b) easy
(c) impossible
(d) delightful
Answer:
(c)

88.
(a) consciously
(b) correspondingly
(c) collectively
(d) conscientiously
Answer:
(a)

89.
(a) keep
(b) hold
(c) impress
(d) engage
Answer:
(d)

90.
(a) informed
(b) occupied
(c) acquainted
(d) bored
Answer:
(c)

91.
(a) does
(b) does not
(c) did
(d) did not
Answer:
(b)

92.
(a) on
(b) through
(c) about
(d) over
Answer:
(c)

93.
(a) meaningful
(b) routine
(c) irrelevant
(d) feasible
Answer:
(a)

94.
(a) carry
(b) begin
(c) face
(d) control
Answer:
(b)

95.
(a) carried out
(b) carried over
(c) carried away
(d) carried on
Answer:
(d)

Passage II
A 50 year old woman found that she could (96) with her shyness when she (97). She would emerge from her shy-self and (98) the way, she wanted to sea herself-carefree, uninhibited and (99) the centre of a heated discussion. Many are shy (100) once they’re on stage, they are comfortable.

96.
(a) tackle
(b) deal
(c) handle
(d) bear
Answer:
(b)

97.
(a) amused
(b) assumed
(c) avoided
(d) averted
Answer:
(b)

98.
(a) act
(b) play
(c) do
(d) enact
Answer:
(a)

99.
(a) in
(b) at
(c)with
(d) above
Answer:
(a)

100.
(a) at
(b)but
(c) and
(d)since
Answer:
(b)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

101. If p = 3/5 , q= 7/9 , r=5/7 , then which of the following inequality is true?
(a) p<q<r
(b) q<r<p
(c) p<r<q
(d) r<q<p
Answer:

102. If 7n+9 >100 and n is an integer, then smallest possible value of n is
(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:

103. A train running at 36 km/h crosses a pole in 25 s. Length of the train is
(a) 250 m
(b) 300 m
(c) 225 m
(d) 275 m
Answer:

104. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 10, 12 and 15 h, respectively while working alone. If all the three pipes are opened together, then find the time taken to fill the cistern.
(a) 3 h
(b) 4 h
(c) 5 h
(d) 6 h
Answer:

105. Two men and 3 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 3 men and 2 boys can do the same work in 8 days. In how many days can 2 men and 1 boy do the work?
(a) 11 days
(b) 10.5 days
(c) 11.5 days
(d) 12.5 days
Answer:

106. A paper is in the form of a rectangle ABCD, where AB = 22 cm and BC = 14 cm. A semi-circular portion with BC as diameter is removed. Find the remaining area of the paper (in cm²).
(a) 221
(b) 231
(c) 241
(d) 211
Answer:

107. The circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square of side 22 cm. The area of the circle is
(a) 49 πcm²
(b)49/4 πcm²
(c) 28 πcm²
(d) 196 πcm²
Answer:

108. A refrigerator is listed at Rs 4000. Due to the festival season a shopkeeper announces a discount of 5%. Then, the selling price of refrigerator (in Rs) is
(a)Rs 3800
(b)Rs 3900
(c)Rs 3600
(d)Rs 3500
Answer:

109. A shopkeeper offered a discount of 9% for an article but he marked it at 25% higher than the cost price. Find his profit percentage.
(a) 12.50%
(b) 13%
(c) 13.75%
(d) 16%.
Answer:

110. A sofa-set is marked at Rs 20000. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 10%, 5% and 2% on it. What is the net selling price?
(a)Rs 17768
(b)Rs 16648
(c)Rs 17598
(d)Rs 16758
Answer:

111. If 1/3 of A = 75% of B=0.6 of C, then A : B : C is
(a) 4 : 5 : 9
(b) 5 : 9 : 4
(c) 9 : 5 : 4
(d) 9 : 4 : 5
Answer:

112. A mixture of milk and water is such that the quantity of milk is 3/5 that of water. The proportion of milk in the mixture is
(a) 1/8
(b) 1/2
(c) 3/8
(d) 5/8
Answer:

113. The ratio of father’s age to his son’s age is 7 : 3. The product of their age is 756. The ratio of their ages after 6 yr will be
(a) 2 :1
(b) 5 : 2
(c) 11 : 7
(d) 13 :9
Answer:

114. Given that the mean of five numbers is 27. If one of them is excluded, the mean gets reduced by 2. Determine the excluded number.
(a) 45
(b) 55
(c) 25
(d) 35
Answer:

115. The average age of 100 workers in a factory is 36.5. The average age of the men is 45 and that of the women is 28. The number of women working in the factory is
(a) 50
(b) 45
(c) 40
(d) 60
Answer:

116.

Answer:

117. Ram sold a cow for Rs 136 and thus lost 15%. At what price he should have sold it to gain 15%?
(a)Rs 204
(b)Rs 150
(c)Rs 180
(d)Rs 184
Answer:

118. A trader allows 10% discount on market price and gains 25%. If the market price of the article is Rs 50, what is its cost price?
(a)Rs 36
(b)Rs 45
(c)Rs 25
(d)Rs 55
Answer:

119. A sells an article to B at a profit of 20%. B sells it to C at a profit of 10%. How much per cent will C pay more than what A pays?
(a) 28%
(b) 30%
(c) 32%
(d) 35%
Answer:

120. Three-fifth of two-third of three- seventh of a number is 150. What is 60% of that number?
(a) 52.5
(b) 875
(c) 750
(d) 525
Answer:

121. A certain company has 80 engineers. If the engineers constitute 40% of its workers, then the number of people employed in the company is
(a) 150
(b) 800
(c) 200
(d) 3200
Answer:

122. A train 150 m long passes a tree in 12 s. It will pass a tunnel of 250 m long in
(a) 20 s
(b) 25 s
(c) 32 s
(d) 26 s
Answer:

123. A bus can complete a journey in 6 h, if it travels at 60 km/h. At what speed (km/h) the bus must travel in order to complete the journey in 9 h?
(a) 60
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) 35
Answer:

124. The compound interest on Rs 1800 at 10% per annum, for a certain period of time is Rs 378. Find the time in years.
(a) 1.5 yr
(b)2.5yr
(c) 2 yr
(d) 3 yr
Answer:

125. In how many years shall Rs 2500, invested at the rate of 8% simple interest per annum, amount to Rs 3300?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d)4 1/2
Answer:


126. If A, B and C denote respectively the number of vertices, edges and faces of a cube, then A + B + C is
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 24
(d) 26
Answer:
(d) Number of edges of cube = 12 = A
Number of vertices of cube =8 = B
Number of faces of cube = 6 = C
Then, A + P + C = (12 + 8+ 6) = 26

127. A horse is tied with a rope of length 7 m at one corner of a square field having side equal to 10 m. The minimum possible area of the square field that is left ungrazed is (take π =22/7)
(a) 65.1 m²
(b) 61.5 m²
(c) 56.1 m²
(d) 51.6 m²
Answer:

128. ABCD is a rectangle with AB=h² and AD = 3p. If h is doubled and p is halved, then the
(a) area is multiplied by 4
(b) area is doubled
(c) area is halved
(d) area remains the same
Answer:

129. The number of bricks required for a wall which is 8 m long, 6 m high and 22.5 cm thick, if each brick measures 25 cm x 11.25 cm x 6 cm, is
(a) 6200
(b) 6550
(c) 7000
(d) 6400
Answer:

130. If x+ 1/x = 5, then the value of 2x/3x² – 5x+3
(a)2
(b)1 1/5
(c)1/5
(d)3/5
Answer:

131. If p=99, then value of p(p² + 3p + 3) is
(a) 10000
(b) 99999
(c) 100089
(d) 999999
Answer:

132. When a=4/3, the value of 27a³-108a²+144a-317 is
(a)261
(b)-253
(c)-245
(d)0
Answer:

133.

Answer:

134.

Answer:

135.

Answer:

136. A chord of length 16 cm is at a distance of 6 cm the centre of a circle. The radius of the circle is
(a) 8 cm
(b)10cm
(c)16cm
(d)22cm
Answer:

137. In a triangle, distances from centroid to vertices are respectively 4 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm. Find medians.
(a) 16 cm, 4 cm, 18 cm
(b) 4 cm, 6 cm, 8 cm
(c) 6cm, 9 cm, 12 cm
(d) 20 cm, 21 cm, 25 cm
Answer:

138. A spherical balloon whose radius is r, subtends an angle α at the eye of an observer on the ground, when the angel of elevation of its centre is β. The height of its centre is
(a) r cosecαsinβ
(b)r cosecα/2 sinβ
(c)r cosecα/2 cosβ
(d)r sinαsinβ
Answer:

139. If sec θ +cosec(90°-θ) = 4,(0<θ<90°), then the value of tan θ is
(a) √3
(b)1√ 2
(c)1/√3
(d) 1
Answer:

140. The numerical values of

Answer:

Directions (Q.Nos. 141-145) The following pie chart shows the contents of insects and rodents in an average Indian Household. Examine the chart and answer the questions.

141. If the percentage of spider is x % of the percentage of cockroach, then x is equal to
(a)73 4/7%
(b)75 2/7%
(c)78 4/7%
(d)75 4/7%
Answer:

142. The total percentage of spider, rat and cockroach is greater than the percentage of ant by
(a) 34%
(b) 32%
(c) 28%
(d) 24%
Answer:
(a) Percentage of ant = 27%
Percentage of spider, rat and cockroach = (22+ 11 +28) =61%
61-27 = 34%
Percentage of spider, rat and cockroach is greater by 34% than percentage of ant.

143. If the percentage of rat is y% of the total percentage of ant and cockroach, then y is equal to
(a) 30%
(b) 35%
(c) 25%
(d) 20%
Answer:

144. The total percentage of common lizard, spider and cockroach is greater than the percentage of rat by
(a) 37%
(b) 47%
(c) 35%
(d) 25%
Answer:
(b) Total percentage of common lizard, spider and cockroach =8+ 22+ 28 = 58%
Percentage of rat = 11%
Percentage of common lizard, spider and cockroach is greater.
Then, parentage of lizard = (58 -11) = 47%

145. If the difference of the percentage of rat and miscellaneous by z% of the percentage of cockroach, then z is equal to
(a) 25%
(b) 35%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
Answer:
(a) Difference between rat and miscellaneous
=11-4=7%
Percentage of cockroach = 28 %
z%= 7/28 x 100 = 25%

Directions (Q.Nos. 146-150) Study the following bar-diagram carefully and answer questions given below.

146. The sum of the students passed from university B in years 2003, 2005 and 2006 combined together is
(a) 80000
(b) 60000
(c) 50000
(d) 75000
Answer:
(a) Sum of students passed in 2003, 2005 and 2006 from university ‘B’ = (30 +10 + 40) thousands =80000

147. The ratio between the number of students passed from university ‘A’ in the year 2007 and that from university ‘B’ in 2004 is
(a) 5 : 4
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 5 : 6
(d) 3 : 5
Answer:

148. Number of students passed from university ‘B’ in the year 2008 expressed as a percentage of the total number of students passed from university ‘A’ over the 6 yr is
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 35
Answer:

149. The respective ratio between the number of students passed in year 2007, 2008 and 2004 from university ‘B’ is
(a) 6 : 5 : 3
(b) 6 : 3 : 5
(c) 3 : 5 : 6
(d) 6 : 3 : 3
Answer:
(d) = (Student passed in 2007 : Student passed in 2008 : Student passed in 2004) from university ‘B’
= 60:30:30 =6:3:3

150. The difference between the total number of students passed from both the universities in the year 2008 combined together and the total number of students passed in the year 2004 from both the universities taken together is
(a) 35000
(b) 25000
(c) 20000
(d) 30000
Answer:
(d) Total student passed in 2008
= (50+30) = 80 thousands
Total student passed in 2004
= (30 + 20) = 50 thousands
Then, required difference =(80 — 50) thousands
= 30 thousands.

Part IV General Awareness

151.Who are the price-takers under Perfect Competition?
(a) Buyers
(b) Industry
(c) Government
(d) Firms
Answer:
(d) A firm that is operating in a perfectly competitive market will be a price-taker. A price-taker can’t control the price of the good it sells, it simply takes the market price as given.

152. Open market operation refers to
(a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b) borrowing by scheduled banks to industry and trade
(c) purchase and sale of Government securities by the RBI
(d) deposit mobilization
Answer:
(c) An Open Market Operation (OMO) is an activity by a central bank to buy or sell Government bonds on the open market. In India, RBI is the central bank, so it control’s the policies of open market.

153. An employment situation where the marginal productivity of agricultural labour is zero is known as
(a) Structural unemployment
(b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment
(d) disguised unemployment
Answer:
(b) Seasonal unemployment refers to a situation where a number of persons are not able to find jobs during some months of the year.

154. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Indian economy?
(a) Low per capita income
(b) Primacy of agriculture
(c) Balance between heavy industry and wage goods
(d) Population pressure .
Answer:
(c) The main characteristics of Indian economy are Low per capita income, In equi- table distribution of income, High incidence of poverty. Rapid population growth, scarcity of capital and technological back wardress.

155. Who said in the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles of the State Policy are like a ‘Cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank’?
(a) KTShah
(b) KM Munshi
(c) BR Ambedkar
(d) Austin
Answer:
(a) KT Shah said in the Constitutional Assembly that the Directive Principles of the State Policy are like a ‘Cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank’. He opposed to Dr. Rajendra Prasad in First Presidential election.

156. Term ‘Federal’ has been used in the Indian Constitution in
(a) Preamble
(b) Part III
(c) Article 368
(d) Nowhere in the Constitution
Answer:
(d) Term ’Federal’ has not been used in the Indian Constitution. The term ‘Union’ has been used in place of it.

157. Which of the following is associated with Panchayati Raj?
(a) Shah Commission
(b) Nanavati Commission
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(d) Liberahan Commission
Answer:
(c) The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) is associated with Panchayati Raj. It recommeneded that decision making should be decentralized and elected local bodies should be established.

158. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution prescribes distribution of seats in Rajya Sabha?
(a) 3rd Schedule
(b) 4th Schedule
(c) 5th Schedule
(d) 6th Schedule
Answer:
(b) The 4th Schedule of the Indian Constitution prescribes allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.

159. Which one of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?
(a) Interstate Rivers
(b) Trade Unions
(c) Citizenship
(d) Local Government
Answer:
(b) Concurrent List is given in the 7th Schedule of Indian Constitution. At present, 52 subjects are listed in it. Both, State and Central Governments . have equal power on its subjects.

160. Which Amendment of the Constitution deals with Political defections?
(a) 44th
(b) 50th
(c) 52nd
(d) 60th
Answer:
(c) The Fifty-second Amendment 1985, inserted the Tenth Schedule in the constitution regarding provisions as to disqualification on the grounds of defection.

161. When and by whom were the Ashokan Inscriptions deciphered for the first time?
(a) 1810-Harry Smith
(b) 1787-John Tower
(c) 1825-Charles Metcalfe
(d) 1837-James Prinsep
Answer:
(d) The Ashokan Inscriptions deciphered for the first time by James Prinsep in 1837.

162. Amuktamalyada is the work of
(a) Allasani Peddana
(b) Krishnadeva Raya
(c) Vachcharaj
(d) Kharavela
Answer:
(b) Krishandeva Raya (AD 1509-29) was the greatest ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty of Vijayanagar. His political ideas are contained in the Telugu book Amuktamalayada.

163. The use of which of the following regional languages was popularised by the Bhakti Leader, Shankaradeva?
(a) Assamese
(b) Bengali
(c) Brijbhasha
(d) Avadhi
Answer:
(a) Srimanta Shankardev (1449- 1568) was a 15th-16th century Assamese Vaishnavite saint-scholar, play wright, social religious reformer and a colossal figure in the cultural and religious history of Assam, India.

164. The Mansabdari System was introduced by
(a) Akbar
(b) Shah Jahan
(c) Jahangir
(d) Babur
Answer:
(a) The Mansabdari System was introduced by Mughal Ruler Akbar to organise nobility as well as the army.

165. Which one of the following was created by the ‘Pitt’s India Act’?
(a) Court of Directors
(b) Board of Control
(c) Board of Revenue
(d) Standing Council
Answer:
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 created the Board of Control with 6 members setup to guide and supervise the affairs of the company in India.

166. When granite rocks get metamorphosed, they change into
(a) marble
(b) felspar
(c) gneiss
(d) quartzite
Answer:
(c) When granite rocks get metamorphosed, they change into gneisse. Originally granite is a Igneous rock.

167. Spot the odd item in the following
(a) Dead sea
(b) Red sea
(c) Black sea
(d) Caspian sea
Answer:
(a) The Dead Sea is different from all other bodies of water on Earth because it’s incredibly salty, with a saline level between 28% and 35%.

168. Earth received heat from the Sun is known as
(a) Thermal radiation
(b) Insolation
(c) Infrared heat
(d) Solar radiation
Answer:
(d) Heats from the Sun reaches to the Earth by radiation, so it called Solar radiation.

169. Which one of the following is a raw material oriented industry?
(a) Ship building
(b) Sugar industry
(c) Petroleum refinery
(d) Light engineering industry
Answer:
(b) Sugar industry is a raw material oriented industry. Sugar is produced from sugarcane juice, so its industries established in a area which has sufficient availability of sugarcane.

170. Which country is the largest producer of wool?
(a) Canada
(b) USA
(c) Australia
(d) Britain
Answer:
(c) Australia is the largest producer of wool.

171. Which enzyme is obtained from red gram?
(a) Urease
(b) Zymase
(c) Maltase
(d) Diastase
Answer:
(d) Diastase enzyme is obtained from red gram. It catalyser the breakdown of starch into maltose.

172. Longest cell in human body is
(a) muscle cell
(b) blood cell
(c) bone cells
(d) nerve cell
Answer:
(d) Nerve cell (Neuron) is the longest cell in human body, with a length of 90-100 cm. Its jointed the Central Nervous system to other parts of body.

173. Which part of the plant is used as ‘saffron’?
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamens
(d) Style and Stigma
Answer:
(d) Saffron is a spice derived form the flower of crocus sativus, commonly known as the saffron crocus. The female part of plant style and stigma are used as saffron.

174. Grave’s disease is caused due to
(a) hyperactivity of thymus
(b) hyperactivity of thyroid
(c) hypoactivity of thymus
(d) hypoactivity of thyroid
Answer:
(b) Grave’s disease is an autoimmune disease. It most commonly affects the thyroid frequently causing it to enlarge to twice its size or more, become overactive, with related hyperthyroid symptoms such as increased heartbeat, muscle weakness, disturbed sleep and irritability.

175. Which one of following is called the primary pace maker of the heart?
(a) SA Node
(b) AV Node
(c) Chordae tendinae
(d) AV Septum
Answer:
(a) The sinoatrial node (sinus node) is the impulse-generating tissue located in the right atrium of the heart and thus the generator of normal sinus rhythm. It is a group of cells positioned on the wall of the right atrium, near the entrance of the superior venacave.

176. Chiropterophily means .
(a) production of leaves
(b) production of flowers
(c) pollination by wind
(d) pollination by bat
Answer:
(d) Chiropterophily or pollination of plants by bats, is very common in the tropics. Hundreds of tropical plant species are exclusively or atleast partly pollinated by nectar-feeding bats.

177. A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months. Three-fourth of the substance will decay in
(a) 6 months
(b) 8 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 4 months
Answer:
(b) If a radioactive substance has a half-life of four months than three-fourth of the substance will decay in 8 months .

178. Red light is used- in traffic signal for stopping the traffic because
(a) it is visible even to longsighted people
(b) eye is more sensitive to red light
(c) it is least scattered and hence can be easily noticed from long distance
(d) it is very pleasant to the eye
Answer:
(c) Red light is used in traffic signals for stopping the traffic because it is least scattered and hence can be easily noticed from long distance.

179. The property which is seen in light wave but not in sound wave is
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) polarization
Answer:
(d) Polarization is a property of light wave. It seens in light waves but not in sound wave.

180. The indentations on CDs and DVDs are called
(a) lands
(b) pits
(c) clusters
(d) tracks
Answer:
(b) The indentations on CDs and DVDs are called pits.

181. Programs which protect a disk from an infection are called as
(a) interpreters
(b) vaccines
(c) antidotes
(d) library routines
Answer:
(c) Programs which protect a disk from an infection are called as antidotes.

182. CPU performance is often measured in .
(a) GB
(b)Mhz
(c) MIPS
(d) Band rate
Answer:
(b) CPU performance is often measured in Mhz.

183. Caustic soda is
(a) efflorescent
(b) deliquescent
(c) oxidant
(d) reductant
Answer:
(b) Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH) also known as caustic soda is a highly caustic metallic base. This alkali is deliquescent and readily absorbs moisture and carbon dioxide in air.

184. Which one among the following is a solid lubricant?
(a) Indium
(b) Germanium
(c) Sulphur
(d) Graphite
Answer:
(d) Graphite is a crystalline allotropes of carbon. It is opaque and black. It is used as a solid lubricant in high tempered machines.

185. A white solid ‘A’ on heating gives off a gas which turns lime water milky. The residue is yellow when hot but turns white on cooling. The solid A is
(a) zinc sulphate
(b) zinc carbonate
(c) lead sulphate
(d) lead carbonate
Answer:
(b) Zinc carbonate is a white solid, on heating it gives off carbon dioxide gas which turns lime water milky.

186. Suspended colloidal particles in the water can be removed by the process of
(a) coagulation
(b) filtration
(c) adsorption
(d) absorption
Answer:
(a) Suspended colloidal particles in the water can be removed by the process of coagulation.

187. The acid rain destroys the vegetation because it contains
(a) nitrates
(b) ozone
(c) carbon monoxide
(d) sulphuric acid
Answer:
(d) The acid rain destroys the vegetation because it contains sulphuric acid. It is due to oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.

188. Iron and manganese are removed in water by the process of
(a) aeration
(b) chlorination
(c) filtration
(d) lime-soda treatment
Answer:
(b) Iron and manganese are removed in water by the process of chlorination. In this process, iron convert into ferric hydroxide and manganese in manganese dioxide.

189. Which of the following is the strongest coagulant?
(a) Magnesium sulphate
(b) Zinc chloride
(c) Aluminium chloride
(d) Barium chloride
Answer:
(c) Aluminium chloride is the strongest coagulant.

190. Activated sludge treatment is called
(a) chemical treatment
(b) preliminary treatment
(c) biological treatment
(d) pre treatment
Answer:
(c) Activated sludge treatment is called biological treatment.

191. Roger Federer won the Seventh Wimbledon title in 2012. In which year, he won the Sixth Wimbledon title?
(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2011
Answer:
(b) Roger Federer won his Sixth Wimbledon title after in 2009 defeated Andy Roddick (USA).

192. To promote and popularise which game in India, another Indian League Tournament was launched in 2011 on the lines of IPL?
(a) Soccer
(b) Volley ball
(c) Hockey
(d) Basket ball
Answer:
(c) To promote and popularise Hockey in India, Hockey India League Tournament was launched in 2011.

193. How many cricketers,‘Who have represented India in test matches are presently Lok Sabha members?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Former test cricketer Kirti Azad (Darbhanga, Bihar) and Mohd. Azaharuddin (Moradabad, UP) are presently Lok Sabha members.

194. Which one of the following African countries is a member of OPEC?
(a) Algeria
(b) Angola
(c) Libya
(d) South Africa
Answer:
(d) OPEC is a organization of oil export countries, established in September 1960. It has 12 members countries at present, but South Africa is not member of it.

195. Which one of the following National Park/ Sanctuary is not in Rajasthan?
(a) Rhanthambore National Park
(b) Sariska National Park
(c) Sambar Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Rajaji National Park
Answer:
(d) Rajaji National Park is situated in Shivalik range of Uttarakhand state.

196. Which day is observed as ‘International Day of Non-Violence’?
(a) 30th January
(b) 1 st May
(c) 2nd October
(d) 24th October
Answer:
(c) 2nd October is observed as International Day of Non-Violence.

197. Which country will host the next meet of CHOGM (Commonwealth Heads of Government Meet) in 2013?
(a) India
(b) UK
(c) Mauritius
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(d) Colombo (Sri Lanka) will host the next meet of CHOGM (Commonwealth Heads of Government Meet) in 2013. The first meeting of this organisation was held in 1971.

198. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE) is in
(a) Jhansi
(b) Patiala
(c) Gwalior
(d) Indore
Answer:
(c) Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE) is established in Gwalior (MP) on August 1957.

199. Who is the Governor of Paschim Banga?
(a) Margaret Alva
(b) BL Joshi
(c) MK Narayanan
(d) Shivraj Patil
Answer:
(c) MK Narayanan is the Governor of Paschim Banga, since 2010.

200. The concept of “Carbon credit’ originated from
(a) Earth Summit, Rio-de-Janerio
(b) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The concept of ’Carbon credit’ originated from Kyoto Protocol (1997).