SSC CHSL Previous Year Solved Papers - 09 November, 2014 (1st Shift)

SSC CHSL LDC/ DEO/ PSA Previous Year Solved Papers – 09 November, 2014 (1st Shift)

Contents

SSC CHSL Previous Papers SSC CHSL Study Material SSC CHSL Practice Workbook

SSC CHSL Combined Higher Secondary (10+2) Level LDC & Data Entry Operator, Exam Solved Paper 09 November, 2014 (1st Shift)

Part I General Intelligence

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-9) Select the related letter/word/ number from the given alternatives.

1. DEF : EFD :: FGH : ?
(a) FHG
(b) HGF
(c) HFG
(d) GHF

2. AZB : CYD :: EXF : ?
(a) GWH
(b) FGV
(c) TMR
(d) QSV

3. HGUOR : HTOOMS :: ? : REDNET
(a) TOUGH
(b) THOUG
(c) HUGOT
(d) HGUOT

4. 7 : 24 :: ?
(a) 30 :100
(b) 23 : 72
(c) 19:58
(d) 11 .43

5. 12 : 140 :: 156 : ?
(a) 1820
(b) 1500
(c) 1250
(d) 1121

6. 64 : 4 ::?: 9
(a) 18
(b) 729
(c) 81
(d) 144

7. Maharashtra : India :: Texas : ?
(a) Canada
(b) Mexico
(c) Brazil
(d) USA

8. Qualm : Nausea :: Bum : ?
(a) Fresh
(b) Sear
(c) Sensible
(d) Wet

9. Heart: Cardiologist:: Kidney : ?
(a) Endocrinologist
(b) Orthodontist
(c) Nephrologist
(d) Neurologist

Directions (Q. Nos. 10-12) Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

10. 1. Reading 2. Listening
3. Writing 4. Speaking
(a) 4, 2,1,3
(b) 2, 4, 3,1
(c) 2, 4, 1,3
(d) 4, 3, 2,1

11. 1. Adulthood 2. Infancy
3. Childhood 4. Adolescence
(a) 1,3, 4, 2
(b) 2, 3, 4,1
(c) 2, 4, 3,1
(d) 1,2, 3, 4

12. 1. Curd 2. Milk
3. Buttermilk 4. Cow
5. Ghee 6. Butter
(a) 2, 5, 6,4,1,3
(b) 4,6,2,1,3,5
(c) 4, 2,1,3, 6, 5
(d) 2, 6, 4, 5, 3,1

Directions (Q- Nos. 13-20) Find the odd word/number/ letter/number pair from the given alternatives.

13.
(a) BCDG
(b) GIJL
(c) PRSU
(d) UWXZ

14.
(a) MKHBD
(b) GFKHC
(c) BDFAT
(d) XVRPI

15.
(a) DCEB
(b) PNQST
(c) VKHGM
(d) WPZLH

16.
(a) 1625
(b) 3649
(c) 6481
(d) 5025

17.
(a) 512
(b) 625
(c) 1296
(d) 2401

18.
(a) Poland
(b) Korea
(c) Spain
(d) Greece

19.
(a) Polaris
(b) Nike
(c) Crux
(d) Phoenix

20.
(a) Chameleon
(b) Crocodile
(c) Alligator
(d) Locust

21. Find the wrong number in the series
30, 27, 36, 45, 72
(a) 30
(b) 27
(c) 36
(d) 72

Directions (Q. Nos. 22-26) A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

22. 68, 81, 96, ?, 132
(a) 105
(b) 110
(c) 113
(d) 130

23. 121, 253, 374, 495,?
(a) 565
(b) 523
(c) 5116
(d) 5102

24. CE, GI, KM, OQ, ?
(a) TW
(b) TV
(c) SU
(d) RT

25. R, O, L, I, F, ?
(a) C
(b) A
(c) E
(d) I

26. 3, 15, 4,16, 5,17, 6, ? , 7
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 18

27. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. INFLATIONARY
(a) FLAIR
(b) FAULTY
(c) NATIONAL
(d) RATION

28. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
_cb_ca_bacb_ca_bac_d
(a) badddb
(b) bbbddd
(c) addddb
(d) addbbb

29. Mani is double the age of Prabhu. Ramona is half the age of Prabhu. If Mani is sixty, find out the age of Ramona.
(a) 20
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 24

30. A family consisted of a man, his wife, his three sons, their wives and three children in each son’s family. How many members are there in the family?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 17

31. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.
2 x 3 x 4=432, 5 x 6 x 7 = 765, 7 x 8 x 9=987,
2 x 5 x 7=?
(a) 572
(b) 752
(c) 725
(d) 257

32. The overall rainfall in certain region of India decreases year after year. Find out from the data the trend in decrease.

(a) 6 mm
(b) 7 mm
(c) 5 mm
(d) 8 mm

33. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how is PEARL coded as?
(a) 29530
(b) 24153
(c) 25413
(d) 25430

34. If the word PRINCIPAL is written as LAPICNIRP, how ADOLESCENCE can be written in that code?
(a) ECNCESELODA
(b) ECNECSLEODA
(c) ECNSCEELODA
(d) ECNECSELQBA

35. Let J = 1, K = 2, L = 5, M = 7, N = 11, 0 = 13, P = 17. Find the letter to be inserted in the box in the relation given.

(a) L
(b) P
(c) J
(d) 0

Directions (Q- Nos. 36 and 37) Select the missing number from the given responses.

36.

(a) 9
(b)40
(c)7
(d)36

37.

(a)444
(b)515
(c)343
(d)373

38. A cyclist rides 40 km to the East, turns North and rides 20 km, again turns left and rides 20 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 30 km

39. Raju was to go to the planetarium. So, he walked 1.5 km towards East from the place and then turned to right and walked 2.5 km and then turned towards East walked 1 km and turned to South and walked 4 km and reached the place by walking 2.5 km towards West. What distance is he from the starting point?
(a) 6.5 km
(b) 9.5 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 9 km

Directions (Q. Nos. 40 and 41) Three statements are given followed by two/four Conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the three statements to he true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

40. Statements All clerks are superintendents. All superintendents are managers. All managers are supervisors.
Conclusions
I. All supervisors are clerks.
II. Some clerks are supervisors.
III. Some managers are clerks.
IV. All superintendents are clerks.
(a) Only Conclusion I
(b) Only Conclusion II
(c) Only Conclusion III
(d) Only Conclusion IV

41. Statements Rabindranath Tagore wrote many poems. Every poet has aesthetic knowledge. Aesthetic is a part of axiological study.
Conclusions
I. Rabindranath Tagore did different axiological study.
II. He followed the base of logic and ethics.
(a) Only Conclusion I
(b) Both Conclusions I and II
(c) Only Conclusion II
(d) None

42. How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

43. Among the four answer figures, which figure can be formed from the cut pieces given below in the question figure?

Directions (Q- Nos. 44 and 45) Which one of the following diagrams represents the correct relationship among.

44. Lion, Fox and Carnivorous

45. Manager, Labour Union and Worker

46. Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

47. Which of the answer figure is embedded in the question figure?

48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the question figure?

50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., A can be represented by 01, 20, 42 etc. and H can be represented by 65,57,98 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word given in the question.
FAITH

(a) 24,31, 10,59,57
(b) 12,20,40,68,65
(c) 31,34,23,76,79
(d) 43,42,41,78,89

Part II English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have error and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If a sentence is free from error, then your answer is (d).

51. Shakespeare has written (a)/ many plays (b)/ as well as some poetries, (c)/ No error (d)

52. Neither of the girls (a)/ were willing to (b)/ accept the proposal, (c)/ No error (d)

53. A interesting book (a)/ ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ (b)/ was written by Alexander Dumas, (c)/ No error (d)

54. In India (a)/ there are (b)/ many poors, (c)/ No error (d)

55. I worked (a)/ as medical representative (b)/ for eight months, (c)/ No error (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In the following questions, sentences given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

56. A group of agitators___the mob to break down the Vice-Chancellor’s door.
(a) wished
(b) excited
(c) threatened
(d) incited

57. Turn the lights ___before you go to bed.
(a) on
(b) off
(c) out
(d) down

58. There is no___evidence to support your assertion.
(a) facile
(b) fictitious
(c) facetious
(d) factual

59. Throw a stone__the fierce dog.
(a) at
(b) upon
(c) on
(d) above

60. Is not learning superior ___wealth?
(a) than
(b) from
(c) by
(d) to

Directions (Q- Nos. 61-65) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

61. Immortal
(a) Eternal
(b) Permanent
(c) Deathly
(d) Temporary

62. Focus
(a) Disappear
(b) Disperse
(c) Link
(d) Layer

63. Veteran
(a) Activist
(b) Enthusiast
(c) Novice
(d) Master

64. Superfluous
(a) Essential
(b) Excess
(c) Unwanted
(d) Necessary

65. Equilibrium
(a) Work out
(b) Disturb
(c) Imbalance
(d) Unevenness

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

66. Petition
(a) Rotation
(b) Administration
(c) Appeal
(d) Vocation

67. Proposition
(a) Intimation
(b) Protestation
(c) Proposal
(d) Invitation

68. Vivacious
(a) Imaginary
(b) Lively
(c) Perceptible
(d) Languid

69. Sporadic
(a) Timely
(b) Scattered
(c) Frequent
(d) Irrelevant

70. Persevere
(a) Fickle
(b) Persist
(c) Constant
(d) Polite

Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

71. He spoke well though it was his maiden speech.
(a) long speech
(b) first speech
(c) brief speech
(d) emotional speech

72. The students were all ears, when the speaker started talking about the changes in the exam.
(a) smiling
(b) silent
(c) restless
(d) attentive

73. In his salad days he was quite a dandy.
(a) childhood
(b) adolescence
(c) schooldays
(d) old age

74. He is cool about working at night.
(a) ready to work
(b) not ready to work
(c) excited about working
(d) grudgingly working

75. You cannot throw dust into my eyes.
(a) terrify me
(b) cheat me
(c) hurt me
(d) abuse me

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) In the following questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b), (c), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case ‘No improvement’ is needed your answer is (d).

76. She did not like the movie, nor I did.
(a) nor did I
(b) nor I like it
(c) nor did I like it
(d) No improvement

77. Old habits die hardly.
(a) hard
(b) too hard
(c) much hardly
(d) No improvement

78. One cannot be indifferent to one’s health, can’t one.
(a) can’t be?
(b) can one?
(c) isn’t it?
(d) No improvement

79. The mother with her children were expected.
(a) was
(b) will
(c) have
(d) No improvement

80. Sohan is pleased at the news yesterday.
(a) has been pleased
(b) had been pleased
(c) was pleased
(d) No improvement

Directions (Q- Nos. 81-85) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

81. Incapable of error.
(a) Erroneous
(b) Incorrigible
(c) Unbeatable
(d) Infallible

82. One who believes everything he or she hears.
(a) Credulous
(b) Credible
(c) Creditable
(d) Credential

83. An allowance made to a wife by her husband, when they are legally separated.
(a) Alimony
(b) Parsimony
(c) Matrimony
(d) Honorarium

84. Wild imagination.
(a) Whim
(b) Fantasy
(c) Fancy
(d) Memory

85. A poem of fourteen lines.
(a) Ballad
(b) Psalm
(c) Sonnet
(d) Carol

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) In the following questions, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word .

86.
(a) Happened
(b) Happenned
(c) Hapened
(d) Hapenned

87.
(a) Sentimantalist
(b) Sentimentelist
(c) Sentimentalist
(d) Santimentalist

88.
(a) Laibertarian
(b) Libertarian
(c) Liebertarian
(d) Liberterian

89.
(a) Emphetic
(b) Emphattic
(c) Emphatick
(d) Emphatic

90.
(a) Mountainer
(b) Mountaineer
(c) Mounteener
(d) Mountineer

Directions (Q- Nos. 91-100) In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives and fill in the blanks.

Passage
Delhi (91) the capital of India. People from all parts of the country and the world (92) to Delhi. There (93) many historical buildings. People (94) the Rajghat, Shantivan and Vijayghat. We visited Delhi last year (95) out cousins. There (96) many other historical cities. Agra (97) one of them. We (98) visit Agra and Jaipur next time. The Red Fort of Delhi and the Hawa Mahal of Jaipur were (99) famous for their Mughal (100) Rajasthani architecture respectively.

91.
(a) was
(b) are
(c) is
(d) were

92.
(a) came
(b) comes
(c) come
(d) coming

93.
(a) has
(b) were
(c) is
(d) are

94.
(a) visit
(b) visited
(c) visiting
(d) visits

95.
(a) for
(b) on
(c) of
(d) with

96.
(a) is
(b) are
(c) were
(d) was

97.
(a) are
(b) was
(c) is
(d) were

98.
(a) will
(b) would
(c) could
(d) can

99.
(a) much
(b) very
(c) too
(d) more

100.
(a) either
(b) because
(c) or
(d) and

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

101. A teacher wants to arrange his students in an equal number of rows and columns. If there are 1369 students, the number of students in the last row are
(a) 37
(b) 33
(c) 63
(d) 47

102. If x/y = 4/5, then the value of

is
(a)3/7
(b)1 1/7
(c) 1
(d) 2

103. A and B working separately can do a piece of work in 9 days and 15 days respectively. If they work for a day alternately, with A beginning, then the work will be completed in
(a) 10 days
(b) 11 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 12 days

104. Ram left 1/3 of his property to his widow and 3/5 of the remainder to his daughter. He gave the rest to his son who received Rs 6400. How much was his original property worth?
(a) Rs 16000
(b) Rs 32000
(c) Rs 24000
(d) Rs 1600

105. The first term of an arithmetic progression is 22 and the last term is -11. If the sum is 66, the number of terms in the sequence are
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 8

106. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 44 and 264 respectively. If the first number is divided by 2, the quotient is 44. The other number is
(a) 147
(b) 528
(c) 132
(d) 264

107. The marked price of a saree is Rs 200. After allowing a discount of 20% on the marked price, the shopkeeper makes a profit of Rs 16. Find the gain per cent.
(a) 11 1/9
(b) 9 1/11
(c) 11
(d) 8

108. The marked price of an item is twice the cost price. For a gain of 15%, the discount should be
(a) 7.5%
(b) 20.5%
(c) 32.5%
(d) 42.5%

109. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5. If 9 is subtracted from each, . the new numbers are in the ratio 12:23. The small number is
(a) 27
(b) 33
(c) 49
(d) 55

110. If x: y = 5:2, then (8x + 9y): (8x + 2y) is
(a) 22:29
(b) 26:61
(c) 29:22
(d) 61 :26

111. Two Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 min and 45 min respectively. Another Pipe C can empty the tank in 30 min. First A and B are opened. After 7 min, C is also opened. The tank is filled up in
(a) 39 min
(b) 46 min
(c) 40 min
(d) 45 min

112. If the sum of the dimensions of- a rectangular parallelepiped is 24 cm and the length of the diagonal is 15 cm, then the total surface area of it is
(a) 420 cm²
(b) 275 cm²
(c) 351 cm²
(d) 378 cm²

113. Area of a regular hexagon with side a is
(a) 3√3/4 a²
(b) 12/2√3 a²
(c) 9/2√3 a²
(d) 6/√2 a²

114. A man sold his watch at a loss of 5%. Had he sold it for Rs 56.25 more, he would have gained 10%. What is the cost price (in Rs) of the watch ?
(a) 370
(b) 365
(c) 375
(d) 390

115. 1% of 1% of 25% of 1000 is
(a) 0.025
(b) 0.0025
(c) 0.25
(d) 0.000025

116. The population of a village increases by 5% annually. If its present population is 4410, then its population 2 yr ago was
(a) 4500
(b) 4000
(c) 3800
(d) 3500

117. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 1 1/2 h will be covered by A in
(a) 15 min
(b) 20 min
(c) 30 min
(d) 1 h

118 . A sum of Rs 210 was taken as a loan. This is to be paid back in two equal installments. If the rate of interest be 10% compounded annually, then the value of each installment is
(a) Rs 127
(b) Rs 121
(c) Rs 210
(d) Rs 225

119.The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs 8000. The average salary of 7 technicians is Rs 12000 and the average salary of the rest is Rs 6000. The total number of workers in the workshop is
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23

120. 3 yr ago the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 yr. A baby having been born, the average age of the family is the same today. The present age of the baby is
(a) 1 yr
(b) 1 1/2yr
(c) 2 yr
(d) 3 yr

121. A total profit of Rs 3600 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C such that A: B = 5:4 and B:C = 8:9. The share of C in the profit is
(a)Rs 1200
(b)Rs 1500
(c)Rs 1650
(d)Rs 1700.

122. A flask in the shape of a right circular cone of height 24 cm is filled with water. The water is poured in a right circular cylindrical flask whose radius is 1/3 rd of the radius of the base of the circular cone. Then, the height of the water in the cylindrical flask is
(a) 32 cm
(b) 24 cm
(c) 48 cm
(d) 72 cm

123. If the three medians of a triangle are same, then the triangle is
(a) equilateral
(b) isosceles
(c) right angled
(d) obtuse angled

124.

(a)4/3
(b)3/2
(c)5/2
(d)5/3

125. The area of a square park is 25 sq km. The time taken to complete a round of the field once, at a speed of 3 km/h is
(a) 4 h 60 min
(b) 4 h 50 min
(c) 6 h 40 min
(d) 5 h 40 min

126. The external fencing of a circular path around a circular plot of land is 33 m more than its interior fencing. The width of the path around the plot is
(a) 5.52 m
(b) 5.25 m
(c) 2.55 m
(d) 2.25 m

127. A horse takes 2 1/2 s to complete a round around a circular field. If the speed of the horse was 66 m/s, then the radius of the field is
[Given π = 22/7]
(a) 25.62 m
(b) 26.52 m
(c) 25.26 m
(d) 26.25 m

128.

(a) 216
(b) 192
(c) 198
(d) 204

129. The perimeters of two similar triangles ΔABC and ΔPQR are 36 cm and 24 cm respectively. If PQ = 10 cm, the AB is
(a) 15 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 14 cm
(d) 26 cm

130. If the sides of a right angled triangle are three consecutive integers, then the length of the smallest side is
(a) 3 units
(b) 2 units
(c) 4 units
(d) 5 units

131. Two circles intersect each other at the points A and B. A straight line parallel to AB intersects the circles at C, D, E and F. If CD = 4.5 cm, then the measure of EF is
(a) 1.50 cm
(b) 2.25 cm .
(c) 4.50 cm
(d) 9.00 cm

132. Which one of the following is true?
(a) √5 + √ 3 > √6 +√2
(b) √5 + √ 3 < √6 + √2
(c) √5 + √ 3 = √6 + √2
(d)(√5 + √3) (√6 +√2 ) = 1

133.

(a)1/a-b-c
(b)1/a+b-c
(c)1/a-b+c
(d)1/a+b+c

134.

(a)24
(b)4
(c)16
(d)8

135. If θ is a positive acute angle and 4 cos² θ – 4 cos θ +1 = 0, then the value of tan (θ-15°) is equal to
(a)0
(b)1
(c) √3
(d) 1/√3

136.

(a)4/5
(b)5/4
(c)√3/4
(d)√5/4

137. A vertical pole and a vertical tower are standing on the same level ground. Height of the pole is 10 m. From the top of the pole the angle of elevation of the top of the tower and angle of depression of the foot of the tower are 60° and 30° respectively. The height of the tower is
(a) 20 m
(b) 30 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 50 m

138. The sum of the interior angles of a polygon is 1440°. The number of sides of the polygon is
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12

139. In ΔABC, D and E are two points on the sides AB and AC respectively, so that DE\\BC and AD/BD=2/3 Then,
the area of trapezium DECB /the area of ΔABC
is equal to
(a)5/9
(b)21/25
(c)1 4/5
(d)5 1/4

140.

(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2

141. The length of the shadow of a vertical tower on level ground increases by 10 m when the altitude of the Sun changes from 45° to 30°. Then, the height of the tower is
(a) 5(√3 + 1)m
(b) 5(√3 — 1) m
(c) 5√3m
(d) 5/√3 m

Directions (Q. Nos. 142-145) Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

142. Total sale of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is
(a) 250
(b) 310
(c) 435
(d) 560

143. Find the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch B4 for both years.
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 7 : 9

144. Percentage of the average sale of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 and the average sale of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000
(a) 87.5
(b) 75
(c) 77.5
(d) 82.5

145. Find the percentage increase in the sales of books of branch B3 in the year 2001, then the branch B2.
(a) 69.2
(b) 50.8
(c) 40.9
(d) 65.7

Directions (Q- Nos. 146-150) Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

146. Number of patients of age between 55 yr to 66 yr, who got admitted to the hospital on that day is
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 24
(d) 8

147. Total number of patients of age more than 55 yr, who got admitted to the hospital is
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 10

148. Number of patients of age more than 40 yr and less than 55 yr, who got admitted to the hospital on that day is
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) 12

149. Percentage of patients of age less than 45 yr, who got admitted to the hospital on that day is approximately equal to
(a) 14
(b) 20
(c) 37
(d) 62

150. About 11% of the patients who got admitted to the .hospital on that particular day were of age
(a) either between 35 yr and 40 yr or between 55 yr and 60 yr
(b) between 60 yr and 65 yr
(c) between 35 yr and 40 yr
(d) between 35 yr and 40 yr and between 55 yr and 60 yr

Part IV General Awareness

151.Which of the following occurs when labour productivity rises?
(a) The equilibrium nominal wage falls
(b) The equilibrium quantity of labour falls
(c) Competitive firms will be induced to use more capital
(d) The labour demand curve shifts to the right

152.Which of the following are consumer semi-durable goods?
(a) Cars and television sets
(b) Milk and milk products
(c) Foodgrains and other food products
(d) Electrical appliance like fans and electric irons

153.Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Most workers will work for less than their reservation wage
(b) The reservation wage is the maximum amount any firm will pay for a worker
(c) Economic rent is the difference between the market wage and the reservation wage .
(d) Economic rent is the amount one must pay to enter a desirable labour market

154.Other things being equal, a decrease in quantity demanded of a commodity can be caused by
(a) a rise in the price of the commodity
(b) a rise in the income of the consumer
(c) a fall in the price of a commodity
(d) a fall in the income of the consumer

155.Which of the following is not an economic problem?
(a) Deciding between paid work and leisure
(b) Deciding between expenditure on one good and the other
(c) Deciding between alternative methods of personal saving
(d) Deciding between different ways of spending leisure time

156.In which year were the states reorganized on a linguistic basis?
(a) 1951
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d)1956

157.Who has got the power to create All India Services?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) The Parliament
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Prime Minister

158.Which one of the following is the most lasting contribution of the Rastrakutas?
(a) Kailasha Temple
(b) Pampa, Ponna, Ranna, the three writers of Kannada Poetry and Kailasha Temple
(c) Patronage of Jainism
(d) Conquests

159.Ravikirti, a Jain who composed the Aihole Prashasti, was patronized by
(a) Pulakeshi I
(b) Harsha
(c) Pulakeshi II
(d) Kharavela

160.The ‘Mein Kampf’ was written by
(a) Hitler
(b) Mussolini
(c) Bismarck
(d) Mazzini

161.When did the reign of Delhi Sultanate came to an end?
(a) 1498 AD
(b) 1526 AD
(c) 1565 AD
(d) 1600 AD

162.In the provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there?
(a) 296
(b) 313
(c) 318
(d) 316

163. It was decided to observe Mahatma Gandhi’s birthday October 2 as the International Non-violence Day at
(a) International Indology Conference
(b) Satyagraha Centenary Conference
(c) Congress Foundation Day Celebration
(d) None of the above

164. Who admits a new State to the Union of India?
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament

165. India is the largest producer and exporter of
(a) Cotton
(b) Copper
(c) Tea
(d) Mica

166. The soils which are rich in Calcium are known as
(a) Pedocals
(b) Pedalfers
(c) Podsols
(d) Laterites

167. Cultivable land is defined as
(a) land actually under crops
(b) cultivable waste land + fallow land
(c) old fallow lands + current fallow lands
(d) total fallow lands + net sown area

168.From which part of Opium plant we get morphine?
(a) Leaves
(b) Stem
(c) Bark
(d) Fruit coat

169. Which of the following is a Biological method of soil conservation?
(a) Contour farming
(b) Contour terracing
(c) Gully control
(d) Basin listing

170. Glucose is a type of
(a) Pentose sugar
(b) Hexose sugar
(c) Tetrose sugar
(d) Diose sugar

171. Number of mitochondria in bacterial cell is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) many
(d) zero

172. The original founder of the manuscripts and Editor of Kautilya’s Arthashastra was
(a) Srikanta Shastri
(b) Srinivasa lyangar
(c) R Shamashastri
(d) William Jones

173. Which- of the following is-the largest Biosphere Reserves of India?
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Nandadevi
(c) Sundarbans
(d) Gulf of Mannar

174. ISRO’s Master Control Facility is in
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Odisha
(c) Gujarat
(d) Karnataka

175. Golden view of sea shell is due to
(a) Diffraction
(b) Dispersion
(c) Polarization
(d) Reflection

176. An object covers distance which is directly proportional to the square of the time. Its acceleration is
(a) increasing
(b) decreasing
(c) zero
(d) constant

177. If the horizontal range of a projectile is four times its maximum height, the angle of projection is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) sin^-1
(d) tan^-1

178. Which place is called as ‘Silicon Valley’ of India?
(a) Delhi
(b) Pune
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Hyderabad

179. Telnet stands for
(a) Telephone Network
(b) Television Network
(c) Teletype Network
(d) Telefax Network

180. Which of the following metals has least melting point?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper

181. The gas produced in marshy places due to decomposition of vegetation is
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Methane

182. In cactus, the spines are the modified
(a) stem
(b) stipules
(c) leaves
(d) huds

183. The smallest known prokaryotic organism is
(a) Microcystis
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Bacteria
(d) Chlorella

184. Rainbow is formed due to
(a) refraction and dispersion
(b) scattering and refraction
(c) diffraction and refraction
(d) refraction and reflection

185. About how much of the world’s land area is tropical rainforest?
(a) 2%
(b) 7%
(c) 10%
(d) 15%

186. According to your text, what can “be thought of as the genetic library that keeps life going on Earth”?
(a) A bio-engineering lab
(b) Human genes
(c) The human genome project
(d) Biodiversity

187. The world’s growing appetite for what food product is a leading cause of tropical deforestation?
(a) Pork
(b) Sugar
(c) Lamb
(d) Beef

188. ‘Life Divine’ is a book written by
(a) M K Gandhi
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) S Radhakrishnan
(d) Shri Aurobindo

189. The Oscar Award was won 26 times by
(a) Charlie Chaplin
(b) Alfred Hitchcock
(c) Walt Disney
(d) Akiro Kurosawa

190. The boiling point of water decreases at higher altitudes is due to
(a) low temperature
(b) low atmospheric pressure
(c) high temperature
(d) high atmospheric pressure

191. The chemical name of ‘Hypo’ commonly used in photography is
(a) Sodium thiosulphate
(b) Silver nitrate
(c) Sodium nitrate
(d) Silver iodide

192. With what bio-region is the term ‘Steppe’ associated?
(a) Grasslands
(b) Trophical forests
(c) Savanna
(d) Coniferous forests

193. Tulsidas wrote Ramcharitmanas in the reign of
(a) Babar
(b) Akbar
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Jahangir

194. Grammy Award is given in the field of
(a) Acting
(b) Music
(c) Singing
(d) Boxing

195. The first woman to get the Bharat Ratna Award is
(a) Mother Teresa
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Lata Mangeshkar
(d) Sarojini Naidu

196. Karl Marx wrote
(a) Asian Drama
(b) Emma
(c) Das Kapital
(d) Good Earth

197. The religious text of the Jews is named as
(a) The Analectus
(b) Torah
(c) Tripitaka
(d) Zend-Avesta

198. “Meghdoot” was written by
(a) Humayun Kabir
(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Banabhatta
(d) Kalidasa

199. Who among the following is a famous English writer?
(a) AmritaPritam
(b) Mahadevi Verma
(c) Ashapurna Devi
(d) Mulk Raj Anand

200. The President of World Bank is
(a) Jim Yong Kim
(b) Christine Lagarde
(c) Prema Cariappa
(d) VijayLKelkar