NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – p-Block Elements (Group 15 to 18)

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise SolutionsPhysicsBiology

1.Match the interhalogen compounds of column-I with the geometry in column-II and assign the correct code. (NEET 2017)

2.In which pair of ions both the species contain S — S bond? (NEET 2017)
(a) S₄0₆^2-, S₂0₃^2-
(b) S₂0₇^2-, S₂0₈^2-
(c) S₄0₆^2-, S₂0₇^2-
(d) S₂O₇^2-,S₂O₃^2-

3.Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. (NEET-1 2016)

4.Which is the correct statement for the given acids? (NEET-1 2016)
(a) Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
(b) Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.
(c) Both are diprotic acids.
(d) Both are triprotic acids.

5.Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules? (NEET-1 2016)
(a) Br₂>I₂>F₂>Cl₂
(b) F₂>Cl₂>Br₂>I₂
(c) I₂>Br₂>Cl₂>F₂
(d) Cl₂>Br₂>F₂>I₂

6.When copper is heated with cone. HN0₃ it produces (NEET-1 2016)
(a) CU(N0₃)₂ NO and N0₂
(b) CU(N0₃)₂ and N₂0
(c) Cu(N0₃)₂ and N0₂
(d) CU(N0₃)₂ and NO

7.Among the following, the correct order of acidity is (NEET-1 2016)
(a) HCIO₂<HCIO<HCIO₃<HCIO₄
(b) HCIO₄<HCIO₂<HCIO<HCIO₃
(c) HCIO₃ < HCIO₄ < HCIO₂ < HCIO
(d) HCIO<HCIO₂<HCIO₃<HCIO₄

8.Strong reducing behaviour of H₃P0₂ is due to (2015)
(a) high electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
(b) high oxidation state of phosphorus
(c) presence of two -OH groups and one P—H bond
(d) presence of one -OH group and two P—H bonds.

9.The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl. What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride? (2015)
(a) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules.
(b) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides.
(c) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF molecule.
(d) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the group.

10. Which of the statements given below is incorrect? (2015)
(a) 0₃ molecule is bent.
(b) ONF is isoelectronic with 0₂N^–
(c) OF₂ is an oxide of fluorine.
(d) Cl₂0₇ is an anhydride of perchloric acid.

11. The formation of the oxide ion, O^2- (g) from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below :
O(g) + e^–—> O^–(g); Δ_fH° =-141 kJ mol^-1
O^– (g)+ e^–—-> 0^2-(g); Δ_fH° = +780 kJ mol^-1
Thus, process of formation of 0^2- in gas phase is unfavourable even though O^2- is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that, (2015)
(a) 0^– ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom
(b) oxygen is more electronegative
(c) addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion
(d) electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.

12. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties in common. Which property is shown by one of these compounds, but not by the other? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Is soluble in water.
(b) Is used as a food preservative.
(c) Forms ‘acid-rain’.
(d) Is a reducing agent.

13. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order (2014)
(a) H₂S<H₂Se<H₂Te
(b) H₂Se<H₂S<H₂Te
(c) H₂Te<H₂S<H₂Se
(d) H₂Se < H₂Te < H₂S

14. Which is the strongest acid in the following? (NEET 2013)
(a) HCIO₄
(b) H₂S0₃
(c) H₂S0₄
(d) HCIO₃

15. Which one of the following molecules contains no π bond? (NEET 2013)
(a) S0₂
(b) N0₂
(c) C0₂
(d) H₂0

16. Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating? (NEET 2013) ‘
(a) K₂Cr₂0₇
(b) (NH₄)₂Cr₂0₇
(c) KCIO₃
(d) Zn(CIO₃)₂

17. Identify the incorrect statement, regarding the molecule Xe0₄ : (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) Xe0₄ molecule is square planar.
(b) There are four pπ – dπ bonds.
(c) There are four sp³ – p, σ bonds.
(d) Xe0₄ molecule is tetrahedral.

18. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state? (2012)
(a) N₂H₄
(b) NH₃
(c) N₃H
(d) NH₂OH

19. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus? (2012)
(a) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate.
(b) Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.
(c) All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus.
(d) All oxoacids contain atleast one P=0 unit and one P—OH group.

20. Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction? (2012)
(a) CaS0₄ + C–Δ–>
(b) Fe₂(S0₄)₃ –Δ–>
(c) S + H₂S0₄ –Δ–>
(d) H₂S0₄ + PCl₅ –Δ–>

21. In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it? (Mains 2012)
(a) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength
(b) H₂0 < H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te : increasing pK_a values
(c) NH₃ < PH₃ < AsH₃ < SbH₃ : increasing acidic character
(d) C0₂ < Si0₂ < Sn0₂ < Pb0₂ : increasing oxidising power

22. Oxidation states of P in H₄P₂0₅, H₄P₂0₆, H₄P₂0₇ are respectively (2010)
(a) +3,+5,+4
(b) +5,+3,+4
(c) +5,+4,+3
(d) +3,+4,+5

23. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is (2010)
(a) Cl₂0 < Clo₂ < Clo₂^–
(b) Cl0₂ < Cl₂0 < Clo₂^–
(c) Cl₂0 < Clo₂^– < Clo₂
(d) Clo₂^– < Cl₂0 < Clo₂

24. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P₄O₁₀? (Mains 2010)
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5

25. Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent? (2009)
(a) Br₂
(b) I₂
(c) Cl₂
(d) F₂

26. The angular shape of ozone molecule (0₃) consists of (2008)
(a) lσ and 1π bond
(b) 2σ and 1π bond
(c) lσ and 2π bonds
(d) 2σ and 2π bonds

27. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids? (2007, 2005)
(a) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3< HOClO₂
(b) HOClO₂<HOClO₃<HOClO<HOCI
(c) HOClO₃ < HOClO₂ < HOClO < HOCl
(d) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO₂ < HOClO₃

28. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH₃ (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This is because (2006)
(a) in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF₃ these are in the same direction
(b) in NH₃ as well as in NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
(c) in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF₃ these are in opposite directions
(d) in NH₃ as well as in NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions.

29. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it? (2006)
(a) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂: Bond dissociation energy
(b) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Oxidising power
(c) HI > HBr > HCl > HF: Acidic property in water
(d) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Electronegativity.

30. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds are not equal? (2006)
(a) NF₃
(b) ClF₃
(c) BF₃
(d) AlF₃

31. What is the correct relationship between the pH of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide, Na₂0 (pH₁), sodium sulphide, Na₂S (pH₂), sodium selenide, Na₂Se (pH₃) and sodium telluride Na₂Te (pH₄)? (2005)
(a) pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ > pH₄
(b) pH₁ > pH₂ = PH₃ > pH₄
(c) pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ < pH₄
(d) pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ = pH₄

32. Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour? (2005)
(a) C0₂
(b) Si0₂
(c) S0₂
(d) Clo₂

33. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment? (2005)
(a) SiF₄
(b) SF₄
(c) XeF₄
(d) BF₃

34. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can form more than one binary compound with chlorine is (2004)
(a) Fe
(b) Zn
(c) K
(d) Ca

35. Which of the following statement is true? (2002)
(a) Silicon exhibits 4 coordination number in its compound.
(b) Bond energy of F₂ is less than Cl₂.
(c) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than Mn(II) in aqueous state.
(d) Elements of 15th gp shows only + 3 and +5 oxidation states.

36. Which of the following order is wrong? (2002)
(a) NH₃ < PH₃ < ASH₃ – acidic
(b) Li < Be < B < C – 1st IP
(c) Al₂0₃ < MgO < Na₂0 < K₂0 – basic
(d) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ – ionic radius.

37. Correct order of 1st ionisation potential among following elements Be, B, C, N, O is (2001)
(a) B < Be < C < O < N
(b) B<Be<C<N<0
(c) Be < B < C < N < O
(d) Be < B < C < O < N

38. Which compound has planar structure? (2000)
(a) XeF₄
(b) XeOF₂
(c) Xe0₂F₂
(d) Xe0₄

39. Which of the following oxides is most acidic? (1999)
(a) As₂0₅
(b) P₂0₅
(c) N₂0₅
(d) Sb₂O₅

40. Which of the following phosphorus is the most reactive? (1999)
(a) Scarlet phosphorus
(b) White phosphorus
(c) Red phosphorus
(d) Violet phosphorus

41. Which of the following is used in the preparation of chlorine? (1999)
(a) Both Mn0₂ and KMn0₄
(b) Only KMn0₄
(c) Only Mn0₂
(d) Either Mn0₂ or KMn0₄

42. Repeated use of which one of the following fertilizers would increase the acidity of the soil? (1998)
(a) Ammonium sulphate
(b) Superphosphate of lime
(c) Urea
(d) Potassium nitrate

43. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment? (1997)
(a) SbH₃
(b) ASH₃
(c) NH₃
(d) PH₃

44. The structural formula of hypophosphorous acid is (1997)

45. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy? (1996)
(a) S-S
(b) 0-0
(c) Se-Se
(d) Te-Te

46. The basic character of hydrides of the V group elements decreases in the order (1996)
(a) NH₃ > PH₃ > ASH₃ > SbH₃
(b) SbH₃ > ASH₃ > PH₃ > NH₃
(c) SbH₃ > PH₃ > ASH₃ > NH₃
(d) NH₃ > SbH₃ > PH₃ > ASH₃

47. Among the following oxides, the lowest acidic is (1996)
(a) AS₄0₆
(b) AS₄O₁₀
(c) P₄0₆
(d) P₄O₁₀

48. Which of the following has the greatest electron affinity? (1996)
(a) I
(b) Br
(c) F
(d) Cl

49. Which of the following represents calcium chlorite? (1996)
(a) Ca(Clo₃)₂
(b) Ca(Clo₂)₂
(c) CaClo₂
(d) Ca(Clo₄)₂

50. Reaction of sodium thiosulphate with iodine gives (1996)
(a) tetrathionate ion
(b) sulphide ion
(c) sulphate ion
(d) sulphite ion.

51. About 20 km above the earth, there is an ozone layer. Which one of the following statements about ozone and ozone layer is true? (1995)
(a) It is beneficial to us as it stops U.V. radiation
(b) Conversion of 0₃ to 0₂ is an endothermic reaction.
(c) Ozone has a triatomic linear molecule
(d) It is harmful as it stops userful radiation

52. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³. What is the atomic number of the element, which is just below the above element in the periodic table? (1995)
(a) 36
(b) 49
(c) 33
(d) 34

53. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is paramagnetic? (1994)
(a) N0₂
(b) N₂0₃
(c) N₂0
(d) N₂0₅

54. Which of the following displaces Br₂ from an aqueous solution containing bromide ions? (1994)
(a) I₂
(b) I₃^–
(c) Cl₂
(d) Cl^–

55. Which of the following fluorides does not exist? (1993)
(a) NF₅
(b) PF₅
(c) AsF₅
(d) SbF₅

56. Which of the following species has four lone pairs of electrons? (1993)
(a) I
(b) O
(c) Cl^– 
(d) He

57. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions? (1993)
(a) Ga, Ni, Tl
(b) Na, Mg, Al
(c) N, O, F
(d) V, Cr, Mn.

58. A solution of potassium bromide is treated with each of the following. Which one would liberate bromine? (1993)
(a) Hydrogen iodide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Chlorine
(d) Iodine

59. Which of the following elements is extracted commercially by the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its compound? (1993)
(a) Cl
(b) Br
(c) Al
(d) Na

60. Number of electrons shared in the formation of nitrogen molecule is (1992)
(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 8

61. Sugarcane on reaction with nitric acid gives (1992)
(a) C0₂ and S0₂
(b) (COOH)₂
(c) 2HCOOH(two moles)
(d) no reaction.

62. Nitrogen is relatively inactive element because (1992)
(a) its atom has a stable electronic configuration
(b) it has low atomic radius
(c) its electronegativity is fairly high
(d) dissociation energy of its molecule is fairly high.

63. H₃P0₂ is the molecular formula of an acid of phosphorus. Its name and basicity respectively (1992)
(a) phosphorous acid and two
(b) hypophosphorous acid and two
(c) hypophosphorous acid and one
(d) hypophosphoric acid and two.

64. Which of the following bonds will be most polar? (1992)
(a) N – Cl
(b) O-F
(c) N-F
(d) N-N

65. Elements of which of the following groups will form anions most readily? (1992)
(a) Oxygen family
(b) Nitrogen family
(c) Halogens
(d) Alkali metals

66. Strongest hydrogen bonding is shown by (1992)
(a) water
(b) ammonia
(c) hydrogen fluoride
(d) hydrogen sulphide.

67. When chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at room temperature, the main reaction product is (1992)
(a) Ca(Clo₂)₂
(b) CaCl₂
(c) CaOCl₂
(d) Ca(OCl)₂

68. In the manufacture of bromine from sea water, the mother liquor containing bromides is treated with (1992)
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) chlorine
(c) iodine
(d) sulphur dioxide.

69. Which would quickly absorb oxygen? (1991)
(a) Alkaline solution of pyrogallol
(b) Cone. H₂S0₄
(c) Lime water
(d) Alkaline solution of CuS0₄.

70. Oleum is (1991)
(a) castor oil
(b) oil of vitriol
(c) fuming H₂S0₄
(d) none of these.

71. Aqueous solution of ammonia consists of (1991)
(a) H⁺
(b) OH^–
(c) NH₄⁺
(d) NH₄⁺ and OH^– .

72. P₂0₅ is heated with water to give (1991)
(a) hypophosphorous acid
(b) phosphorous acid
(c) hypophosphoric acid
(d) orthophosphoric acid.

73. Basicity of orthophosphoric acid is (1991)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

74. PCl₃ reacts with water to form(1991)
(a) PH₃
(b) H₃P0₃,HCl
(c) POCl₃
(d) H₃P0₄

75. PH₄I + NaOH forms (1991)
(a) PH₃
(b) NH₃
(c) P₄0₆
(d) P₄O₁₀

76. Pure nitrogen is prepared in the laboratory by heating a mixture of (1991)
(a) NH₄OH + NaCl
(b) NH₄ NO₃+NaCl
(c) NH₄Cl + NaOH
(d) NH₄Cl+NaNO₂

77. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to (1991)
(a) reduction
(b) hydrogenation
(c) chlorination
(d) oxidation.

78. Which of the following statement is not correct for nitrogen? (1990)
(a) Its electronegativity is very high.
(b) d-orbitals are available for bonding.
(c) It is a typical non-metal.
(d) Its molecular size is small.

79. Which of the following compound does not exist? (1989)
(a) NCl₅
(b) AsF₅
(c) SbCl₅
(d) PF₅

80. Each of the following is true for white and red phosphorus except that they (1989)
(a) are both soluble in CS₂
(b) can be oxidised by heating in air
(c) consist of the same kind of atoms
(d) can be converted into one another.

81. When orthophosphoric acid is heated to 600°C, the product formed is (1989)
(a) PH₃
(b) P₂0₅
(c) H₃P0₃
(d) HP0₃

82. Which one has the lowest boiling point? (1989)
(a) NH₃
(b) PH₃
(c) AsH₃
(d) SbH₃

83.Oxygen will directly react with each of the following elements except (1989)
(a) P
(b) a
(c) Na
(d) S

84. The gases respectively absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol and oil of cinnamon are (1989)
(a) 0₃, CH₄
(b) 0₂, 0₃
(c) S0₂,CH₄
(d) N₂0, 0₃.

85. It is possible to obtain oxygen from air by fractional distillation because (1989)
(a) oxygen is in a different group of the periodic table from nitrogen
(b) oxygen is more reactive than nitrogen
(c) oxygen has higher b.p. than nitrogen
(d) oxygen has a lower density than nitrogen.

86. Bleaching powder reacts with a few drops of cone. HCl to give (1989)
(a) chlorine
(b) hypochlorous acid
(c) calcium oxide
(d) oxygen.

87. Which of the following is a nitric acid anhydride? (1988)
(a) NO
(b) N0₂
(c) N₂0₅
(d) N₂0₃

88. Bleaching powder is obtained by the action of chlorine gas and (1988)
(a) dilute solution of Ca(OH)₂
(b) concentrated solution of Ca(OH)₂
(c) dry CaO
(d) dry slaked lime.

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise SolutionsPhysicsBiology

1. The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces (NEET 2017)
(a) iodobenzene
(b) phenol
(c) benzene
(d) ethyl chloride.

2. Which one is the most acidic compound? (NEET 2017)

3.The reaction

can be classified as (NEET-I 2016)
(a) dehydration reaction
(b) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
(c) Williamson ether synthesis reaction
(d) alcohol formation reaction.

4. Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one of the following functional group?(2015)
(a) -COOH
(b) -CHCl₂
(c) -CHO
(d) -CH₂Cl

5. Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides?
(I) CH₃CH₃OH + HCl —Anh,ZnCl₂—->
(II) CH₃CH₃OH + HCl —–>
(III) (CH₃)₃COH + HCl —–>
(IV) (CH₃)₂CHOH + HCl—Anh,ZnCl₂—->
(a) (I) and (II) only
(b) (IV) only
(c) (III) and (IV) only
(d) (I), (III) and (IV) only

6. The reaction,

is called (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Etard reaction
(b) Gattermann-Koch reaction
(c) Williamson synthesis
(d) Williamson continuous etherification process.

7. Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole? (2014)
(a) CH₃CHO ; RMgX
(b) C₆H₅OH ; NaOH ; CH₃I
(c) C₆H₅OH ; neutral FeCl₃
(d) C₆H₅CH₃; CH₃COCl; AlCl₃

8. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate? (2014)
(a) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) o-Nitrophenol
(d) Benzenesulphonic acid

9. Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI? (NEET 2013)

10. Number of isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C₆H₁₄0 which give positive iodoform test is (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) two

11. In the following sequence of reactions

ether the end product (C) is (2012)
(a) acetone
(b) methane
(c) acetaldehyde
(d) ethyl alcohol

12. Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators? (Mains 2012)
(a) Methyl alcohol
(b) Glycol
(c) Nitrophenol
(d) Ethyl alcohol

13. In the following reactions, (2011)

14. Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II), 2,4,6-trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the order of decreasing acidic character will be ( 2010)
(a) III > II > IV > I
(b) II > III > I > IV
(c) II > III > IV > I
(d) III > IV > II > I

15. Which of the following compounds has the most acidic nature? (2010)

16. Among the following four compounds
(i) Phenol
(ii) Methyl phenol
(iii) Meta-nitrophenol
(iv) Para-nitrophenol
The acidity order is (2010)
(a) (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii)
(b) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)
(c) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
(d) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)

17. When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces (Mains 2010)
(a) 2-iodopropane
(b) allyl iodide
(c) propene
(d) glycerol triiodide

18. Following compounds are given

Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform? (Mains 2010)
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)

19. Match the compounds given in List I with their characteristic reactions given in List II. Select the correct option. (Mains 2010)

20. Consider the following reaction: (2009)

21. HOCH₂ CH₂OH on heating with periodic acid gives (2009)

22. Consider the following reaction: (2009)

(a) benzaldehyde
(b)benzoic acid
(c) benzene
(d)toluene

23. In the reaction:

Which of the following compounds will be formed? (2007)

24. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is (2006)
(a) C_nH_2n+20
(b) C_nH_2n0₂
(c) C_nH_2nO
(d) C_nH_2n+1o

25. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields (2006)
(a) primary alcohol
(b) secondary alcohol
(c) tertiary alcohol
(d) cyclopropyl alcohol.

26. The major organic product in the reaction is (2006)

27. Which one of the following compounds is most acidic? (2005)

28. Which one of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of iodine? (2004)
(a) CH₃CH(OH)CH₃
(b) CH₃CH₂CH(OH)CH₃
(c) CH₃OH
(d) CH₃CH₂OH

29. n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent (2002)
(a) PCl₅
(b) reduction
(c) oxidation with potassium dichromate
(d) ozonolysis.

30. When phenol is treated with CHCl₃ and NaOH, the product formed is (2002)
(a) benzaldehyde
(b) salicylaldehyde
(c) salicylic acid
(d) benzoic acid.

31. Which of the following is correct? (2001)
(a) On reduction, any aldehyde gives secondary alcohol.
(b) Reaction of vegetable oil with H₂S0₄ gives glycerine.
(c) Alcoholic iodine with NaOH gives iodoform.
(d) Sucrose on reaction with NaCl gives invert sugar.

32. Iodoform test is not given by (1998)
(a) ethanal
(b) ethanol
(c) 2-pentanone
(d) 3-pentanone

33. (1998)

34. Which one of the following compounds is resistant to nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions? (1998)
(a) Diethyl ether
(b) Acetonitrile
(c) Acetamide
(d) Methyl acetate

35. When 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol is heated with H₂S0₄, the major product obtained is (1995)
(a) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
(b) cis and trans isomers of 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
(c) 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene
(d) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene.

36. On heating glycerol with cone. H₂S0₄, a compound is obtained which has bad odour. The compound is (1994)
(a) acrolein
(b) formic acid
(c) allyl alcohol
(d) glycerol sulphate.

37. The compound which does not react with sodium is (1994)
(a) CH₃COOH
(b) CH₃CHOHCH₃
(c) C₂H₅OH
(d) CH₃OCH₃

38. Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a pair of functional isomers. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of dimethyl ether, due to the presence of (1993)
(a) H-bonding in ethanol
(b) H-bonding in dimethyl ether
(c) CH₃ group in ethanol
(d) CH₃ group in dimethyl ether.

39. Increasing order of acid strength among p-methoxyphenol, p-methylphenol and p-nitrophenol is (1993)
(a) p-nitrophenol, p-methoxyphenol, p-methylphenol
(b) p-methylphenol, p-methoxyphenol, p-nitrophenol
(c) p-nitrophenol, p-methylphenol, p-methoxyphenol
(d) p-methoxyphenol, p-methylphenol, p-nitrophenol.

40. Which one of the following on oxidation gives a ketone? (1993)
(a) Primary alcohol
(b) Secondary alcohol
(c) Tertiary alcohol
(d) All of these.

41. What is formed when a primary alcohol undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation? (1993)
(a) Aldehyde
b) Ketone
(c) Alkene
(d) Acid

42. When hydrochloric acid gas is treated with propene in presence of benzoyl peroxide, it gives (1993)
(a) 2-chloropropane
(b) allyl chloride
(c) no reaction
(d) n-propyl chloride.

43. How many isomers of C₅H₁₁OH will be primary alcohols? (1992)
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 3

44. Methanol is industrially prepared by (1992)
(a) oxidation of CH₄ by steam at 900°C
(b) reduction of HCHO using LiAIH₄
(c) reaction HCHO with a solution of NaOH
(d) reduction of CO using H₂ and Zn0-Cr₂0₃.

45. HBr reacts fastest with (1992)
(a) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
(b) Methylpropan-2-ol
(c) propan-2-ol
(d) propan-1-ol.

46. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water. It gives (1992)
(a) m-bromophenol
(b) o-and p-bromophenols
(c) 2,4-dibromophenol
(d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol.

47. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is (1989)
(a) butan-1-ol
(b) butan-2-ol
(c) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
(d) 2-methylpropan-2-ol.

48. Which one of the following compounds will be most readily attacked by an electrophile? (1989)
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) Benzene
(c) Phenol
(d) Toluene

49. Propene, CH₃CH=CH₂ can be converted into 1-propanol by oxidation. Indicate which set of reagents amongst the following is ideal for the above conversion? (1989)
(a) KMn0₄ (alkaline)
(b) Osmium tetroxide (OsO₄/CH₂Cl₂)
(c) B₂H₆ and alk. H₂0₂
(d) 0₃/Zn.

50. Phenol is heated with CHCl₃ and aqueous KOH when salicylaldehyde is produced. This reaction is known as (1989,88)
(a) Rosenmund’s reaction
(b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Friedel-Crafts reaction
(d) Sommelet reaction.

51. Lucas reagent is (1988)
(a) cone. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl₂
(b) cone. HN0₃ and hydrous ZnCl₂
(c) cone. HCl and hydrous ZnCl₂
(d) cone. HN0₃ and anhydrous ZnCl₂.

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise SolutionsPhysicsBiology

1.Identify A and predict the type of reaction. (NEET 2017)

2. Consider the reaction,CH₃CH₂CH₂Br + NaCN —> CH₃CH₂CH₂CN+ NaBr This reaction will be the fastest in (NEET-11 2016)
(a) ethanol
(b) methanol
(c) N, N’-dimethylformamide (DMF)
(d) water.

3. Two possible stereo-structures of CH₃CHOHCOOH, which are optically active, are called (2015)
(a) atropisomers
(b) enantiomers
(c) mesomers
(d) diastereomers.

4.In an S_N1 reaction on chiral centres, there is (2015)
(a) inversion more than retention leading topartial racemisation
(b) 100% retention
(c) 100% inversion
(d) 100% racemisation.

5. The reaction of C₆H₅CH=CHCH₃ with HBr produces (2015, Cancelled)

6.Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

7.Given (Karnataka NEET 2013)

(a) identical
(b) a pair of conformers
(c) a pair of geometrical isomers
(d) a pair of optical isomers

8. In the replacement reaction 

The reaction will be most favourable if M happens to be (Mains 2012) 
(a) Na
(b) K
(c) Rb
(d) Li

9. Consider the reactions

The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively (Mains 2011)
(a) S_N1 and S_N2
(b) S_N1 and S_N1
(c) S_N2 and S_N2
(d) S_N2 and S_N1

10. Which one is most reactive towards S_N1 reaction? (2010)

11. The correct order of increasing reactivity of X X

C—X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds is (2010)
(a) I < II < IV < III
(b) II < III < I < IV
(c) IV < III < I < II
(d) III < II < I < IV

12. In the following reaction (2010)

13.Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction? (2009)
(a) 2RX+2Na —>R-R + 2NaX
(b) RX+ H₂—>RH+ HX
(c) RX + Mg —> RMgX
(d) RX + KOH —> ROH + KX

14. How many stereoisomers does this molecule have? (2008)
CH₃CH=CHCH₂CHBrCH₃
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

15. In a Sn2 substitution reaction of the type (2008)

16. If there is no rotation of plane polarised light by a compound in a specific solvent, though to be chiral, it may mean that (2007)
(a) the compound is certainly meso
(b) there is no compound in the solvent
(c) the compound may be a racemic mixture
(d) the compound is certainly a chiral.

17. Which of the following is not chiral?  (2006)
(a) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
(b) 2-Butanol
(c) 2,3-Dibromopentane
(d) 3-Bromopentane

18. Which of the following is least reactive in a nucleophilic substitution reaction?  (2004)
(a) (CH₃)₃C-Cl
(b) CH₂=CHCl
(c) CH₃CH₂Cl
(d) CH₂=CHCH₂Cl

19. Which of the following pairs of compoundsare enantiomers? (2003)

20. Reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation is (2002) 
(a) R-F>R-Cl>R-Br>R-l
(b) R-l>R-Br>R-Cl>R-F
(c) R-l>R-Cl>R-Br>R-F
(d) R-F>R-l>R-Br>R-Cl

21.
(2002)
Z in the above reaction sequence is
(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂NHCOCH₃
(b) CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂
(c) CH₃CH₂CH₂CONHCH₃
(d) CH₃CH₂CH₂CONHCOCH₃

22.

obtained by chlorination of n-butane will be (2001)
(a) meso form
(b) racemic mixture
(c) d-form
(d) l-form.

23. An organic compound A (C₄H₉CI) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative then, A is(2001)
(a) t-butyl chloride
(b) s-butyl chloride
(c) iso-butyl chloride
(d) n-butyl chloride.

24. A compound of molecular formula C₇H₁₆ shows optical isomerism, compound will be (2001)
(a) 2,3-dimethylpentane
(b) 2,2-dimethylbutane
(c) 2-methylhexane
(d) none of these.

25. Ethyl chloride is converted into diethyl ether by (1999)
(a) Perkins reaction
(b) Grignard reaction
(c) Wurtz synthesis
(d) Williamson’s synthesis

26. Which of the following compounds is not chiral? (1998)
(a) CH₃CHDCH₂Cl
(b) CH₃CH₂CHDCl
(c) DCH₂CH₂CH₂Cl
(d) CH₂CHClCH₂D

27. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol requires drastic conditions. But chlorine of 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced because (1997)
(a) N0₂ donates e^– at meta position
(b) N0₂ withdraws e^– from ortho/para positions
(c) N0₂ make ring electron rich at ortho and para
(d) N0₂ withdraws e^– from meta position.

28. The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by (1997)
(a) elimination
(b) dehydrohalogenation
(c) addition
(d) substitution.

29. Reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide produces (1994)
(a) sodium t-butoxide
(b) t-butyl methyl ether
(c) isobutane
(d) isobutylene.

30. Grignard reagent is prepared by the reaction between (1994)
(a) magnesium and alkane
(b) magnesium and aromatic hydrocarbon
(c) zinc and alkyl halide
(d) magnesium and alkyl halide.

31. Benzene reacts with n -propyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ to give (1993)
(a) 3-propyl-1-chlorobenzene
(b) n-propylbenzene
(c) no reaction
(d) isopropylbenzene.

32. Industrial preparation of chloroform employs acetone and (1993)
(a) phosgene
(b) calcium hypochlorite
(c) chlorine gas
(d) sodium chloride.

33. Chlorobenzene reacts with Mg in dry ether to give a compound (A) which further reacts with ethanol to yield (1993)
(a) phenol
(b) benzene
(c) ethyl benzene
(d) phenyl ether.

34. When chlorine is passed through propene at 400°C, which of the following is formed? (1993)
(a) PVC
(b) Allyl chloride
(c) Propyl chloride
(d) 1, 2-Dichloroethane

35. Which chloro derivative of benzene among the following would undergo hydrolysis most readily with aqueous sodium hydroxide to furnish the corresponding hydroxy derivative? (1989)

36. Which of the following is an optically active compound? (1989)
(a) 1-Butanol
(b) 1-Propanol
(c) 2-Chlorobutane
(d) 4-Hydroxyheptane

37. Phosgene is a common name for (1988)
(a) phosphoryl chloride
(b) thionyl chloride
(c) carbon dioxide and phosphine
(d) carbonyl chloride.

38. Which one is formed when sodium phenoxide is heated with ethyl iodide? (1988)
(a) Phenetole
(b) Ethyl phenyl alcohol
(c) Phenol
(d) None of these

Answer Key

Explanations

 

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Chemical Kinetics

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise SolutionsPhysicsBiology

1. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction 

The overall order of the reaction will be (NEET 2017)
(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 1.5
(d) 1

2. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10^-2 sec^-1 . How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g? (NEET 2017)
(a) 138.6 sec
(b) 346.5 sec
(c) 693.0 sec
(d) 238.6 sec

3. The decomposition of phosphine (PH₃) on tungsten at Tow pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the (NEET-II 2016)
(a) rate is proportional to the surface coverage
(b) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
(c) rate is independent of the surface coverage
(d) rate of decomposition is very slow.

4. The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 mol L^-1s^-1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L^-1 s^-1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is (NEET-I 2016)
(a) 44.1 s
(b) 54.1 s
(c) 24.1s
(d) 34.1s

5. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities? (NEET-I 2016)
(a) Enthalpy
(b) Activation energy
(c) Entropy
(d) Internal energy

6. The rate constant of the reaction A —> B is 0.6 x 10^-3  mol L^-1 s ^-1. If the concentration of A is 5 M, then concentration of B after 20 minutes is (2015)
(a) 3.60 M
(b) 0.36 M
(c) 0.72 M
(d) 1.08 M

7. The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs? (2015, Cancelled)

8. When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order of the reaction is (2015, Cancelled)
(a) second
(b) more than zero but less than first
(c) zero
(d) first.

9. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (NEET 2013) (R = 8.314 J mol^-1 K^-1)
(a) 34.7 kJ mol^-1
(b) 15.1 kJ mol^-1
(c) 342 kJ mol^-1
(d) 269 kJ mol^-1

10. For a reaction between A and B the order with respect to A is 2 and the other with respect to B is 3. The concentrations of both A and B are doubled, the rate will increase by a factor of (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 10

11. A reaction is 50% complete in 2 hours and 75% complete in 4 hours. The order of reaction is (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0

12. In a reaction, A + B—> product, rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate increases by a factor of 8 when the concentration of both the reactants (A and B) are doubled, rate law for the reaction can be written as (2012)
(a) rate = k[A][B]²
(b) rate = k[A]²[B]²
(c) rate = k[A][B]
(d) rate = k[A]²[B]

13. In a zero-order reaction, for every 10°C rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become (2012)
(a) 256 times
(b) 512 times
(c) 64 times
(d) 128 times

14. Activation energy (E_a) and rate constants (k1, and k2) of a chemical reaction at two different temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by (2012)

15. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect? (2011)
(a) Order can be determined only experimentally.
(b) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.
(c) Order of a reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction.
(d) Order of reaction is always whole number.

16. The rate of the reaction : 2N₂0₅ —» 4N0₂ + 0₂ can be written in three ways.

The relationship between k and k’ and between k and k” are (Mains 2011)
(a) k’ = 2k ; k” = k
(b) k’ = 2k ; k” = k/2
(c) k’ = 2k ; k” = 2k
(d) k’ = k ; k” = k

17. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is
(a) mol L^-1 s^-1
(b) L mol^-1 s^-1
(c)L² mol^-1 s^-1
(d)s^-1

18. The half-life of a substance in a certain enzyme- catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg L^-1 to 0.04 mg L^-1 is  (Mains 2011)
(a) 414 s
(b) 552 s
(c) 690 s
(d) 276 s

19. For the reaction N₂0_5(g)—>2NO_2(g) + 1/2O_2(g) value of rate of disappearance of N₂0₅ is given as 6.25 x 10^-3mol L^-1s^-1. The rate of formation of N0₂ and 0₂ is given respectively as (2010)

20. During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B —» C + D, following results were obtained (2010)

(a) Rate = k[A]²[B]
(b) Rate = k[A][B]
(c) Rate = k[A]²[B]²
(d) Rate = k[A][B]²

21. The rate of the reaction, 2NO + Cl₂ —> 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]²[Cl₂]. The value of the rate constant can be increased by  (Mains 2010)
(a) increasing the temperature
(b) increasing the concentration of NO
(c) increasing the concentration of the Cl₂
(d) doing all of these.

22. For the reaction, N₂ + 3H₂ —» 2NH₃, if d[NH₃] /dt= 2 x 10^-4 mol L^-1 s^-1  the value of -d[H₂]/dt would be
(a) 4 x 10^-4 mol L^-1 s^-1
(b) 6 x 10^-4 mol L^-1 s^-1
(c) 1 x 10^-4 mol L^-1 s^-1
(d) 3 x 10^-4 mol L^-1 s^-1

23.In the reaction, (2009)

24. Half-life period of a first order reaction is 1386  seconds. The specific rate constant of the reaction is  (2009)
(a) 0.5 x 10^-2 s^-1
(b) 0.5 x 10^-3 s^-1
(c) 5.0 x 10^-2 s^-1
(d) 5.0 x 10^-3 s^-1

25.For the reaction A + B —>products, it is observed that (2009)
(i) on doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and
(ii) on doubling the initial concentration of both A and B, there is a change by a factor  of 8 in the rate of the reaction.
The rate of this reaction is given by 
(a) rate = k[A] [B]²
(b) rate = k[A]² [B]²
(c) rate = k[A] [B]
(d) rate = k[A]² [B]

26. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution is represented by this equation. (2008)

27.The rate constants K1, and K2, for two different reactions are 10¹⁶ . e^-2000/T and 10¹⁵  . e^-1000/T, respectively. The temperature at which K1 = K2 is (2008)
(a)2000 k
(b)1000/2.303 k
(c)1000 k
(d)2000/2.303 k

28. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately (2007)
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) 
(a) 45 minutes
(b) 60 minutes
(c) 40 minutes
(d) 50 minutes.

29. In a first-order reaction A —» B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is (2007)
(a)log2/k
(b)log2/k√0.5
(c)In 2/k
(d)0.693/0.5k

30. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as: (2007)

(a) A and B both
(b) Neither A nor B
(c) A only
(d) B only.

31. Consider the reaction: N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) —> 2NH_3(g) The equality relationship between (2006)

32. For the reaction, 2A + B —» 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate (2006)
(a)-d[A]/2dt
(b)-d[C]/3dt
(c)-d[B]/dt
(d)d[D]/dt

33. The rate of reaction between two reactants A and B decreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration of reactant B is doubled. The order of this reaction with respect to reactant B is (2005)
(a) 2
(b) -2
(c) 1
(d) -1

34. For a first order reaction A —> B the reaction rate at reactant concentration of 0.01 M is found to be 2.0 x 10^-5 mol L^-1 s^-1. The half¬life period of the reaction is (2005)
(a) 30 s
(b) 220 s
(c) 300 s
(d) 347 s

35. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 x 10^-2 mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reactant. The half-life of the reaction is  (2004)
(a) 0.383 min
(b) 23.1 min
(c) 8.73 min
(d) 7.53 min

36. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, k = A.e^-E*/RT. Activation energy (E* ) of the reaction can be calculated by plotting (2003)
(a) k vs T
(b) k vs 1/logT
(c) log k vs 1/T
(d) logk vs 1/logT

37. If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is (2003)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

38. The reaction A—>B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675 mole of B ? (2003)
(a) 1 hour
(b) 0.5 hour
(c) 0.25 hour
(d) 2 hours

39. The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A <—-> B is E_a in forward direction. The activation energy for reverse reaction (2003)
(a) is negative of E_a
(b) is always less than E_a
(c) can be less than or more than E_a
(d) is always double of E_a

40. 2A —> B + C It would be a zero order reaction when  (2002)
(a) the rate of reaction is proportional to square of concentration of A
(b) the rate of reaction remains same at any concentration of A
(c) the rate remains unchanged at any concentration of B and C
(d) the rate of reaction doubles if concentration of B is increased to double.

41. 3A —> 2B, rate of reaction +d[B]/dt (2002)

42. When a bio-chemical reaction is carried out in laboratory, outside the human body in absence of enzyme, then rate of reaction obtained is 10^-6 times, the activation energy of reaction in the presence of enzyme is (2001)
(a) 6/RT
(b) P is required
(c) different from E_a obtained in laboratory
(d) can’t say anything.

43. For the reaction; 2N₂O₅ —> 4N0₂ + 0₂ rate and rate constant are 1.02 x 10^-4 and 3.4 x 10^-5 sec^-1 respectively, then concentration of N₂0₅ at that time will be (2001)
(a) 1.732
(b) 3
(c) 1.02 x 10^-4
(d) 3.4 x 10⁵

44. How enzymes increases the rate of reactions (2000)
(a) by lowering activation energy
(b) by increasing activation energy
(c) by changing equilibrium constant
(d) by forming enzyme substrate complex.

45. For the reaction H^– + BiO₃^– + 3Br^– —» 5Br₂ + H₂0 which of the following relation correctly represents the consumption and formation of products.

46. For a first-order reaction, the half-life period is independent of (1999)
(a) first power of final concentration
(b) cube root of initial concentration
(c) initial concentration
(d) square root of final concentration

47. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by (1998)
(a) evaluating rate constants at two different temperatures
(b) evaluating velocities of reaction at two different temperatures
(c) evaluating rate constant at standard temperature
(d) changing concentration of reactants.

48. The experimental data for the reaction, (1997)
302″ height=”97″ />
The rate equation for the above data is
(a) Rate = k [A]²[B]²
(b) Rate = k [A]²[B]
(c) Rate = k [B₂]
(d) Rate = k [B₂]²

49.(1997)

50. The given reaction 2 FeCl₃ + SnCl₂ —>2 FeCl₂ + SnCl₄ is an example of (1996)
(a) third order reaction
(b) first order reaction
(c) second order reaction
(d) none of these.

51.The data for the reaction A + B—> C, is 

The rate law corresponds to the above data is (1994)
(a) Rate = k[A][B]³
(b) Rate = k[A]²[B]²
(c) Rate = k[B]³
(d) Rate = k[B]⁴

52. By the action of enzymes, the rate of biochemical reaction (1994)
(a) does not change
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) either (a) or (c).

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Electrochemistry

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise SolutionsPhysicsBiology

1. In the electrochemical cell : Zn|ZnSO₄(0.01 M)| |CuS0₄( 1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniell cell is E₁ When the concentration of ZnS0₄ is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuS0₄ changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E₂ From the followings, which one is the relationship between E₁ and E₂  ?(Given, RT/F = 0.059) (MEET 2017)
(a) E₁<E₂
(b)E₁>E₂
(c) E₂ = 0¹E₁
(d) E₁=E₂²

2. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution of AgN0₃ with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 x 10^-3 S cm^-1 at 298 K is (NEET-II 2016)
(a) 2.88 S cm²/mol
(b) 11.52 S cm²/mol
(c) 0.086 S cm²/mol
(d) 28.8 S cm²/mol

3. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3 amperes is(NEET-II 2016)
(a) 55 minutes
(b) 110 minutes
(c) 220 minutes
(d) 330 minutes.

4. If the E°_cell for a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of AG° and K ? (NEET-II 2016, 2011)
(a) ΔG° > 0; K_eq < 1
(b) ΔG° > 0; K_eq > 1
(c) ΔG° < 0; K_eq > 1
(d) ΔG° < 0; K_eq < 1

5. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1.60 x 10^-19 C) (NEET-II 2016)
(a) 6 x 10²³
(b) 6 x 10²⁰
(c) 3.75 x 10²⁰
(d) 7.48 x 10²³

6. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because (NEET-II2016)
(a) zinc is lighter than iron
(b) zinc has lower melting point than iron
(c) zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron 1
(d) zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron.

7.The pressure of H₂ required to make the potential of H₂-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is (NEET-I 2016)
(a) 10^-10 atm
(b) 10^-4 atm
(c) 10^-14 atm
(d) 10^-12 atm

8. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is known as (2015, Cancelled)
(a) dynamo
(b) Ni-Cdcell
(c) iuel cell
(d) electrolytic cell.

9. When 0.1 mol MnO₄^2- is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise MnO₄^2- to Mn0₄^–is (2014)
(a) 96500 C
(b) 2 x 96500 C
(c) 9650C
(d) 96.50 C

10. The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of 0₂ at STP will be (2014)
(a) 5.4 g
(b) 10.8 g
(c) 54.0 g
(d) 108.0 g

11. At 25°C molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1  and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1 . The degree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is (NEET 2013)
(a) 4.008%
(b) 40.800%
(c) 2.080%
(d) 20.800%

12. A button cell used in watches function as following. 

The cell potential will be (NEET 2013)
(a) 0.84 V
(b) 1.34 V
(c) 1.10V
(d) 0.42V

13. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be (NEET 2013)
(a) 0.118V
(b) 1.18V
(c) 0.059 V
(d) 0.59 V

14. Consider the half-cell reduction reaction
Mn²⁺ + 2e^– —> Mn , E° = – 1.18 V
Mn²⁺ Mn³⁺ + e^– , E° = – 1.51 V
The E° for the reaction 3Mn²⁺ —> Mn° + 2Mn³⁺,
and possibility of the forward reaction are
respectively (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) – 4.18 V and yes
(b) + 0.33 V and yes
(c) + 2.69 V and no
(d) – 2.69 V and no

15. How many gram of cobalt metal will be deposited when a solution of cobalt(II) chloride is electrolyzed with a current of 10 amperes for 109 minutes (1 Faraday = 96,500 C; Atomic mass of Co = 59 u) (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) 4.0
(b) 20.0
(c) 40.0
(d) 0.66

16. Limiting molar conductivity of NH₄OH [i.e. ∧°_m(NH₄OH)] is equal to

17. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below :

The strongest oxidising and reducing agents 23 respectively are (Mains 2012)
(a) F₂ and I^–
(b) Br₂ and Cl^–
(c) Cl₂ and Br^–
(d) Cl₂ and I₂

18. Molar conductivities (Λ°_m) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH₃COONa are 126.4 ,425.9 and 91.0 S cm² mol^-1 respectively. (Λ°_m) for CH₃COOH will be (Mains 2012)
(a) 425.5 S cm² moL^-1
(b) 180.5 S cm² moL^-1
(c) 290.8 S cm² moL^-1
(d) 390.5 S cm² mol^-1

19. The Gibb’s energy for the decomposition of Al₂0₃ at 500°C is as follows
2/3 Al₂0₃ —> 4/3 Al + O₂
Δ_rG = + 960 kJ mol^-1
The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (Al₂0₃) at 500°C is at least (Mains 2012)
(a) 4.5 V
(b) 3.0 V
(c) 2.5 V
(d) 5.0 V

20. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are -1.2 V, + 0.5 V and – 3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be (2011)
(a) Y> Z> X
(b) Y> X> Z
(c) Z>X> Y
(d) X> Y> Z

21. The electrode potentials for Cu²⁺_(aq)+ e^– —> Cu⁺_(aq) and Cu⁺_(aq) + e^– —> Cu_(s) are + 0.15 V and + 0.50 V respectively. The value of E°Cu²⁺/Ca will be (2011)
(a) 0.500 V
(b) 0.325 V
(c) 0.650 V
(d) 0.150 V

22. Standard electrode potential for Sn⁴⁺/Sn²⁺ couple is + 0.15 V and that for the Cr³⁺/Cr couple is – 0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be (2011)
(a) + 1.19 V
(b) + 0.89 V
(c) +0.18 V
(d) + 1.83 V

23. A solution contains Fe²⁺, Fe³⁺ and I ^– ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35 °C. E° for Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ is + 0.77 V and E° for I₂/2I ^– = 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is (Mains 2011)
(a) I₂ will be reduced to I ^–
(b) there will be no redox reaction
(c) I ^– will be oxidised to I₂
(d) Fe²⁺ will be oxidised to Fe³⁺

24. For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be + 0.46 V at 25 °C. The value of standard Gibb’s energy, ΔG° will be (2010)
(F = 96500 C mol^-1)
(a) – 89.0 kJ
(b) – 89.0 J
(c) – 44.5 kJ
(d) – 98.0 kJ

25. An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to (2010)
(a) increase in ionic mobility of ions
(b) 100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal dilution
(c) increase in both i.e., number of ions and ionic mobility of ions
(d) increase in number of ions.

26. Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of Al₂(S0₄)₃. Given that Λ° _Al3+ and Λ° _{So4^{2 –}} are the equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of the respective ions? (Mains 2010)

27. Consider the following relations for emf of an electrochemical cell
(i) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)
– (Reduction potential of cathode)
(ii) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)
+ (Reduction potential of cathode)
(iii) EMF of cell = (Reductional potential of j anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode) j
(iv) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode)
– (Oxidation potential of cathode)
Which of the above relations are correct? (Mains 2010)
(a) (iii) and (i)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

28. Given : (2009)

(a) 0.90 V
(b) 0.30 V
(c) 0.38 V
(d) 0.52 V

29. Al₂0₃ is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high currents. If 4.0 x 10⁴ amperes of current is passed through molten Al₂0₃ for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced? (Assume 100% current efficiency, at. mass of Al = 27 g mol^-1). (2009)
(a) 8.1 x 10⁴ g
(b) 2.4 x 10⁵ g
(c) 1.3 x 10⁴ g
(d) 9.0 x 10³ g

30. The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm² and at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm². The dissociation constant of this acid is (2009)
(a) 1.25 x 10^-6
(b) 6.25 x 10^-4
(c) 1.25 x 10^-4
(d) 1.25 x 10^-5

31. On the basis of the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is  (2008)

(a) Fe³⁺
(b) [Fe(CN)₆]^3-
(c) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
(d) Fe²⁺

32. Kohlrausch’s law states that at (2008)
(a) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to conductance of an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(b) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(c) Finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(d) Infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte.

33. Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol)at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and -8.2 for H₂O_(l), C0_2(g) and pentane (g) respectively. The value of E°cell for the pentane-oxygen fuel cell is (2008)
(a) 1.0968 V
(b) 0.0968V
(c) 1.968 V
(d) 2.0968 V

34. The equilibrium constant of the reaction:
Cu_(s)+ 2Ag_(aq)⁺—> Cu²⁺_(aq)+ 2Ag_(S);
E° = 0.46 V at 298 K is (2007)
(a) 2.0 x 10¹⁰
(b) 4.0 x 10¹⁰
(c) 4.0 x 10¹⁵
(d) 2.4 x 10¹⁰

35. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by (2007)
(a) ΔG/ΔS
(b) ΔG/ΔH
(c) ΔS/ΔG
(d) ΔH/ΔG

36. A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below.
A Ι A⁺(x M)II B (y M) I B
The emf measured is + 0.20 V. The cell reaction is (2006)
(a) A + B⁺ —> A⁺ + B
(b) A⁺ + B—>A + B⁺
(c) A⁺ + e^– —> A; B⁺ + e^– —> B
(d) the cell reaction cannot be predicted.

37. (2006)

(a) 0.11 IV
(b) 0.330 V
(c) 1.653 V
(d) 1.212 V

38. 4.5 g of aluminium (at. mass 27 amu) is deposited at cathode from Al3+ solution by a certain quantity of electric charge. The volume of hydrogen produced at STP from H+ ions in solution by the same quantity of electric charge will be (2005)
(a) 44.8 L
(b) 22.4 L
(c) 11.2L
(d) 5.6 L

39. The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall process, is (Atomic mass : A1 = 27) (2005)
(a) 270 kg
(b) 540 kg
(c) 90 kg
(d) 180 kg.

40. The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be (Given F= 96500 C mol^-1 R = 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1) (2004)
(a) 2.0 x 10¹¹
(b) 4.0 x 10¹²
(c) 1.0 x 10²
(d) 1.0 x 10¹⁰

41. The e.m.f. of a Daniell cell at 298 K is E1.

When the concentration of ZnS0₄ is 1.0 M and that of CuS0₄ is 0.01 M, the e.m.f. changed to E2. What is the relationship between E1 and E2 ? (2003)
(a) E1 > E2
(b) E1 < E2
(c) E1 = E2
(d) E2 = 0≠E1

42.On the basis of the information available from the reaction,

(2003)
(a) 2.14 V
(b) 428 V
(c) 6.42 V
(d) 8.56 V

43.In electrolysis of NaCl when Pt electrode is taken then H₂ is liberated at cathode while with Hg cathode it forms sodium amalgam  (2002)
(a) Hg is more inert than Pt
(b) More voltage is required to reduce H+ at Hg than at Pt
(c) Na is dissolved in Hg while it does not dissolve in Pt
(d) Cone, of H+ ions is larger when Pt electrode is taken.

44.Standard electrode potentials are Fe²⁺/Fe;
E° = -0.44 and Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺; E° = 0.77 Fe²⁺ , Fe³⁺ and Fe blocks are kept together, then (2001)
(a) Fe³⁺ increases
(b) Fe³⁺ decreases
(c) Fe²⁺/Fe³⁺ remains unchanged
(d)Fe²⁺ decreases.

45.Equivalent conductances of Ba²⁺ and Cl ^– ions are 127 and 76 ohm^-1 cm^-1 eq^-1 respectively. Equivalent conductance of BaCl₂ at infinite dilution is (2000)
(a) 139.5
(b) 101.5
(c) 203
(d) 279

46.For the disproportionation of copper 2Cu⁺—> Cu²⁺ + Cu, E° is (Given E° for Cu²⁺/Cu is 0.34 V and E° for Cu²⁺/Cu⁺ is 0.15 V.)  (2000)
(a) 0.49 V
(b) -0.19 V
(c) 0.38 V
(d) -0.38 V

47.The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at 23°C is 0.012 ohm^-1 cm^-1. The resistance of cell containing the solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will be (1999)
(a) 0.918 cm^-1
(b) 0.66 cm^-1
(c) 1.142 cm^-1
(d) 1.12 cm^-1

48.For the cell reaction,

(1998)
(a) In (C2)
(b) In (C2/C1)
(c) In (C1)
(d) In (C1 + C2)

49. 1997

(a)10⁺¹⁸
(b)10⁺¹⁷
(c)10^-28
(d)10^-27

50. The molar conductances of NaCl, HCl and CH₃COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45,426.16 and 91 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution (Λ_{m ∞}) is (1997)
(a) 698.28 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1
(b) 540.48 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1
(c) 201.28 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1
(d) 390.71 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1

51. A 5 ampere current is passed through a solution of zinc sulphate for 40 minutes. The amount of zinc deposited at the cathode is  (1996)
(a) 0.4065 g
(b) 65.04 g
(c) 40.65 g
(d) 4.065 g

52. Reduction potential for the following half-cell reactions are (1996)

(a) – 0.32 V
(b) + 1.20 V
(c) -1.20 V
(d) + 0.32 V

53. (1995)

(a) acids used in two compartments are different
(b) e.m.f. depends on molarities of acids used
(c) the temperature is constant
(d) pH of 0.1 M HCl and 0.1 M CH₃COOH is not same.

54. On heating one end of a piece of a metal, the other end becomes hot because of (1995)
(a) energised electrons moving to the other end
(b) minor perturbation in the energy of atoms
(c) resistance of the metal
(d) mobility of atoms in the metal.

55.  (1994)

(a) Ba2+
(b) Mg2+
(c) Na+
(d) Li+

56. On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using platinum electrodes, the product obtained at the anode will be (1992)
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) hydrogen sulphide
(d) sulphur dioxide.

Answer Key

Explanations