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NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Solutions

April 24, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Solutions

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1.If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (K_f) will be (NEET 2017)
(a) halved
(b) tripled
(c) unchanged
(d) doubled.

2.Which of the following is dependent on temperature? (NEET 2017)
(a) Molarity
(b) Mole fraction
(c) Weight percentage
(d) Molality

3.The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is (NEET-II 2016)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

4.Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution?(NEET-II 2016)
(a)ΔH_mix=0
(b)ΔU_mix=0
(c)ΔP=P_obs-P=0
(d)ΔG_mix=0

5. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given, vapour pressure data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa) (NEET-1 2016)
(a) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
(b) Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
(c) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
(d) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.

6.At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be (NEET-1 2016)
(a) 102°C
(b) 103°C
(c) 101°C
(d) 100°C

7. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution? (2015, 2011)
(a) 1.770
(b) 0.0354
(c) 0.0177
(d) 0.177

8. The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg^-1 solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which one of the following statements is true in this case? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular mass of Y.
(b) Y is undergoing dissociation in water while X undergoes no change.
(c) X is undergoing dissociation in water.
(d) Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of Y.

9. Which one of the fol lowing electrolytes has the same value of van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of Al₂(S0₄)₃ (if all are 100% ionised)?(2015, Cancelled)
(a) Al(N0₃)₃
(b) K₄Fe(CN)₆]
(c) K₂S0₄
(d) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]

10. Which of them is not equal to zero for an ideal solution? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) ΔV_mix
(b) ΔP = P_obs-P_Raoult
(c) ΔH_mix
(d)ΔS_mix

11. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression? (2014)
(a) KCl
(b) C₆H₁₂0₆
(c) Al₂(S0₄)₃
(d) K₂SO₄

12. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HN0₃? The concentrated acid is 70% HN0₃. (MEET 2013)
(a) 70.0 g cone. HN0₃
(b) 54.0 g cone. HN0₃
(c) 45.0 g cone. HN0₃
(d) 90.0 g cone. HN0₃

13. Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal ‘ solution? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) Δ_mixV=0
(b) Δ_mixS=0
(c) Obeyance to Raoult’s Law
(d)Δ_mixH=0

14. pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary solution. If xA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be (2012)
(a) pA + xA(pB-pA)
(b) pA+xA(pA-pB)
(c) pB + xA(pB – pA)
(d) pB+xA(pA-pB)

15. Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl₃) and dichloromethane (CH₂Cl₂) at 25°C are 200 mm Hg and 41.5 mm Hg respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl₃ and 40 g of CH₂Cl₂ at the same temperature will be (Mains 2012)
(Molecular mass of CHCl₃ = 119.5 u and molecular mass of CH₂Cl₂ = 85 u)
(a) 173.9 mm Hg
(b) 615.0 mm Hg
(c) 347.9 mm Hg
(d) 285.5 mm Hg

16. The freezing point depression constant for water is -1.86° C m^-1. If 5.00 g Na₂S0₄ is dissolved in 45.0 g H₂0, the freezing point is changed by -3.82°C. Calculate the van’t Hoff factor for Na₂S0₄. (2011)
(a) 2.05
(b) 2.63
(c) 3.11
(d) 0.381

17. The van’t Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively (2011)
(a) less than one and greater than one
(b) less than one and less than one
(c) greater than one and less than one
(d) greater than one and greater than one.

18. A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionized. If K_ffor water is 1.86°C/m, the freezing point of the solution will be (Mains 2011)
(a) -0.18°C
(b) -0.54°C
(c) – 0.36°C
(d) – 0.24°C

19. 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The osmotic pressure of this solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 x 10^-3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol^-1K^-1) (Mains 2011)
(a) 51022 g moL^-1
(b) 122044 g moL^-1
(c) 31011 g moL^-1
(d) 61038 g moL^-1

20. An aqueous solutionis 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase? (2010)
(a) Addition of NaCl
(b) Addition of Na₂S0₄
(c) Addition of 1.00 piolal KI
(d) Addition of water

21. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol^-1) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol^-1) : (2010)
(a) -0.372°C
(b) -0.520°C
(c) + 0.372°C
(d) -0.570“C

22. A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound [Co(NH₃)₅(No₂)]Cl freezes at – 0.00732°C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be (Kf=-1.86°C/m] (2009)
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2

23. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionized .If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol^-1, the lowering in freezing point of the solution is (2007)
(a) 0.56 K
(b) 1.12 K
(c) -0.56 K
(d) 1.12 K

24. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H₂S0₄ by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL^-1 Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H₂S0₄ solution is (2007)
(a) 16.65 mL
(b) 22.20 mL
(c) 5.55 mL
(d) 11.10 mL

25. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is (2006)
(a) from solution having lower concentration only
(b) from solution having higher concentration only
(c) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates
(d) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates.

26. A solution of acetone in ethanol (2006)
(a) obeys Raoult’s law
(b) shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(c) shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(a) behaves like a near ideal solution.

27. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol^-1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol^-1, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by (2006)
(a) 0.2 K
(b) 0.4 K
(c) 0.3 K
(d) 0.5 K

28. A solution containing 10 g per dm³ of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol^-1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a nonvolatile solute is (2006)
(a) 200 g mol^-1
(b) 250 g mol^-1
(c) 300 g mol^-1
(d) 350 g mol^-1

29. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is (2005)
(a) 0.009
(b) 0.018
(c) 0.027
(d) 0.036

30. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mol of Q would be (2005)
(a) 72 torr
(b) 140 torr
(c) 68 torr
(d) 20 torr

31. A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressures of the pure hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm Hg for pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be (2005)
(a) 0.200
(b) 0.549
(c) 0.786
(d) 0.478

32. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol^-1) boils at 100.18°C at the atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol^-1 respectively, the above solution will freeze at (2005)
(a) 0.654°C
(b) -0.654°C
(c) 6.54°C
(d) – 6.54°C

33. A solution containing components A and B follows Raoult’s law (2002)
(a) A – B attraction force is greater than A – A and B – B
(b) A – B attraction force is less than A – A and B-B
(c) A – B attraction force remains same as A – A and B-B
(d) volume of solution is different from sum of volume of solute and solvent.

34. A solution contains non volatile solute of molecular mass M₂. Which of the following can be used to calculate the molecular mass of solute in terms of osmotic pressure? (2002)

(m₂ = mass of solute, V = volume of solution, π = osmotic pressure)

35. 2.5 litre of 1 M NaOH solution is mixed with another 3 litre of 0.5 M NaOH solution. Then find out molarity of resultant solution. (2002)
(a) 0.80 M
(b) 1.0 M
(c) 0.73 M
(d) 0.50M

36. The beans are cooked earlier in pressure cooker because (2001)
(a) boiling point increases witlv increasing pressure
(b) boiling point decreases with increasing pressure
(c) extra pressure of pressure cooker softens the beans
(d) internal energy is not lost while cooking in pressure cooker.

37. Pure water can be obtained from sea water by (2001)
(a) centrifugation
(b) plasmolysis
(c) reverse osmosis
(d) sedimentation.

38. From the colligative properties of solution, which one is the best method for the determination of molecular weight of proteins and polymers? (2000)
(a) Osmotic pressure
(b) Lowering in vapour pressure
(c) Lowering in freezing point
(d) Elevation in boiling point

39. The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm of Hg. A non-volatile and non-electrolyte solid, weighing 2.175 g is added to 39.08 of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution is 600 mm of Hg. What is the molecular weight of solid substance? (1999)
(a) 69.5
(b) 59.6
(c) 49.50
(d) 79.8

40. How many g of dibasic acid (mol. weight 200) should be present in 100 mL of the aqueous solution to give strength of 0.1 N? (1999)
(a) 10 g
(b) 2 g
(c) 1 g
(d) 20 g

41. If 0.15 g of a solute, dissolved in 15 g of solvent, is boiled at a temperature higher by 0.216°C, than that of the pure solvent. The molecular weight of the substance (Molal elevation constant for the solvent is 2.16°C) is (1999)
(a) 10.1
(b) 100
(c) 1.01
(d) 1000

42. The vapour pressure of a solvent decreased by 10 mm of mercury when a non-volatile solute was added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is 0.2. What should be the mole fraction of the solvent if the decrease in the vapour pressure is to be 20 mm of mercury? (1998)
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.2

43. A 5% solution of cane sugar (mol. wt. = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X. The molecular weight of X is (1998)
(a) 68.4
(b) 171.2
(c) 34.2
(d) 136.8

44. Which of the following 0.10 m aqueous solution will have the lowest freezing point? (1997)
(a) KI
(b) C₁₂H₂₂0₁₁
(c) Al₂(S0₄)₃
(d) C₅H₁₀O₅

45. What is the molarity of H₂S0₄ solution, that has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% by weight? (1996)
(a) 18.4 M
(b) 18 M
c) 4.18 M
(d) 8.14M

46. The vapour pressure of CCL₄ at 25°C is 143 mm Hg. If 0.5 g of a non-volatile solute (mol. weight = 65) is dissolved in 100 mL CCl₄, the vapour pressure of the solution will be (1996)
(a) 199.34 mm Hg
(b) 143.99 mm Hg
(c) 141.43 mm Hg
(d) 94.39 mm Hg.

47. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g glucose (P1), 10 g urea (P2), and 10 g sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 mL of water is (1996)
(a) p2 > p1 > p3
(b) p2> p3> p1
(c) p1> p2> p3
(d) p3 > p1> p2

48. The concentration unit, independent of temperature, would be (1995, 1992)
(a) normality
(b) weight volume percent
(c) molality
(d) molarity.

49. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour pressure for a solution is equal to (1995)
(a) mole fraction of solute
(b) mole fraction of solvent
(c) moles of solute
(d) moles of solvent.

50. How many grams of CH₃OH should be added to water to prepare 150 mL solution of 2 M CH₃OH? (1994)
(a) 9.6 x 10³
(b) 2.4 x 10³
(c) 9.6
(d) 2.4

51. At 25°C, the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1 M solution of (1994)
(a) glucose
(b) urea
(c) CaCl₂
(d) KCl

52. Which of the following salt has the same value of vant’s Hoff factor (i) as that of K₃[Fe(CN)₆]? (1994)
(a) Na₂S0₄
(b) Al(N0₃)₃
(c) Al₂(S0₄)₃
(d) NaCl

53. If 0.1 M solution of glucose and 0.1 M solution of urea are placed on two sides of the semipermeable membrane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say that (1992)
(a) there will be no net movement across the membrane
(b) glucose will flow towards glucose solution
(c) urea will flow towards glucose solution
(d) water will flow from urea solution to glucose.

54. Which one is a colligative property? (1992)
(a) Boiling point
(b) Vapour pressure
(c) Osmotic pressure
(d) Freezing point

55. Blood cells retain their normal shape in solution which are (1991)
(a) hypotonic to blood
(b) isotonic to blood
(c) hypertonic to blood
(d) equinormal to blood.

56. Which of the following aqueous solution has minimum freezing point? (1991)
(a) 0.0 l m NaCl
(b) 0.005 m C₂H₅OH
(c) 0.005 m MgI₂
(d) 0.005 m MgS0₄

57. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of (1991)
(a) solute molecules to the solvent molecules
(b) solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
(c) solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
(d) solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute.

58. All form ideal solution except (1988)
(a) C₆H₆ and C₆H₅CH₃
(b) C₂H₆ and C₂H₅I
(c) C₆H₅CI and C₆H₅Br
(d) C₂H₅I and C₂H₅OH

59. An ideal solution is formed when its components (1988)
(a) have no volume change on mixing
(b) have no enthalpy change on mixing
(c) have both the above characteristics
(d) have high solubility.

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Solid State

April 24, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – Solid State

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1. Which is the incorrect statement? (NEET 2017)
(a) Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky defect.
(b) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezoelectric crystal.
(c) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal.
(d) FeO_0.98has non-stoichiometric metal deficiency defect.

2. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca²⁺) and fluoride ion (F^–) are (NEET-ll 2016)
(a) 4 and 2
(b) 6 and 6
(c) 8 and 4
(d) 4 and 8

3. Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m^-3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol^-1. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of lithium metal. (N_A = 6.02 x 10²³ mol^-1) (NEET-I 2016)
(a) 527 pm
(b) 264 pm
(c) 154 pm
(d) 352 pm

4. The ionic radii of A+ and B- ions are 0.98 * 1010 m and 1.81 x 10^-10 m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is (NEET-I 2016)
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 4

5. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is (2015)
(a) 48%
(b) 23%
(c) 32%
(d) 26%

6. The correct statement regarding defects in crystalline solids is (2015)
(a) Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids
(b) Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect
(c) Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals
(d) Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids.

7. A given metal crystallises out with a cubic structure having edge length of 361 pm. If there are four metal atoms in one unit cell, what is the radius of one atom? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) 80 pm
(b) 108 pm
(c) 40 pm
(d) 127 pm

8. If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one comer atom in the cube will be (2014)
(a)2/√3 a
(b)4/√3 a
(c)√3/4 a
(d) √3/2 a

9. A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm^-3. The molar mass of the metal is (NEET 2013)
(N_A Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10²³ mol^-1)
(a) 27 g mol^-1
(b) 20 g mol^-1
(b) 40 g mol^-1
(d) 30 g mol^-1

10. The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is (NEET 2013)
(a) 6
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 8

11. A metal crystallises with a face-centred cubic lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter of the metal atom is (2012)
(a) 288 pm
(b) 408 pm
(c) 144 pm
(d) 204 pm

12. The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close-packed structure is (2012)
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4

13. Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close packed (ccp). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed of oxide ions. One fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is (Mains 2012)
(a) ABO₂
(b) A₂B0₂
(c) A₂B₃0₄
(d) AB₂O₂

14. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion (Y-) will be (Mains 2011)
(a) 275.1 pm
(b) 322.5 pm
(c) 241.5 pm
(d) 165.7 pm

15. AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is (2010)
(a) 335 pm
(b) 250 pm
(c) 200 pm
(d) 300 pm

16. Lithium metal crystallises in a body-centred cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of lithium will be (2009)
(a) 151.8 pm
(b) 75.5 pm
(c) 300.5 pm
(d) 240.8 pm

17. Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm? (2009)
(a) 157
(b) 181
(c) 108
(d) 128

18. Percentage of free space in a body centred cubic unit cell is (2008)
(a) 34%
(b) 28%
(c) 30%
(d) 32%

19. Which of the following statements is not correct? (2008)
(a) The number of carbon atoms in a unit cell of diamond is 4.
(b) The number of Bravais lattices in which a crystal can be categorized is 14.
(c) The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms in a primitive cell is 0.48.
(d) Molecular solids are generally volatile.

20. With which one of the following elements silicon should be doped so as to give p-type of semiconductor? (2008)
(a) Selenium
(b) Boron
(c) Germanium
(d) Arsenic

21. If a stands for the edge length of the cubic systems: simple cubic, body centred cubic and face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively (2008)
(a)1/2 a : √3/2 a : √2/2 a
(b)1 a : √3a : √2a
(c)1/2 a : √3/4 a : 1/2√2 a
(d)1/2 a : √3a : 1/√2 a

22. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is (2007)
(a)π/3√2
(b)π/4√2
(c)π/4
(d)π/6

23. If NaCl is doped with 10^-4 mol % of SrCl₂, the concentration of cation vacancies will be (NA = 6.02 x 10²³mol^-1) (2007)
(a) 6.02 x 10¹⁶ mol^-1
(b) 6.02 x 10¹⁷ mol^-1
(c) 6.02 x 10¹⁴ mol^-1
(d) 6.02 x 10¹⁵ mol^-1

24. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to (2006)
(a) interstitial positions
(b) F-centres
(c) Schottky defect
(d) Frenkel defect.

25. CsBr crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu and Avogadro number being 6.02 x 10²³ mol^-1, the density of CsBr is (2006)
(a) 4.25 g/cm³
(b) 42.5 g/cm³
(c) 0.425 g/cm³
(d) 8.25 g/cm³

26. In a face-centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells? (2005)
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

27. A compound formed by elements X and Y crystallises in a cubic structure in which the X atoms are at the comers of a cube and the Y atoms are at the face-centres. The formula of the compound is (2004)
(a) XY₃
(b) X₃Y
(c) XY
(d) XY₂

28. The pyknometric density of sodium chloride crystal is 2.165 x 10³ kg m^-3 while its X-ray density is 2.178 x 10^-3 kg m^-3. The fraction of unoccupied sites in sodium chloride crystal is (2003)
(a) 5.96
(b) 5.96 x 10^-2
(c) 5.96 x 10^-1
(d) 5.96 x 10^-3

29. When Zn converts from melted state to its solid state, it has hcp structure, then find the number of nearest atoms. (2001)
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 4

30. Cation and anion combines in a crystal to form following type of compound (2000)
(a) ionic
(b) metallic
(c) covalent
(d) dipole-dipole.

31. In cube of any crystal A-atom placed at every comers and B-atom placed at every centre of face. The formula of compound is (2000)
(a) AB
(b) AB₃
(c) A₂B₂
(d) A₂B₃

32. In crystals of which one of the following ionic compounds would you expect maximum distance between centres of cations and anions? (1998)
(a) Csl
(b) CsF
(c) LiF
(d) Lil

33. The second order Bragg diffraction of X-rays with λ = 1.00 Å from a set of parallel planes in a metal occurs at an angle 60°. The distance between the scattering planes in the crystal is (1998)
(a) 2.00 Å
(b) 1.00 Å
(c) 0.575 Å
(d) 1.15 Å

34. The edge length of face centred unit cubic cells is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is (1998)
(a) 144 pm
(b) 398 pm
(c) 288 pm
(d) 618 pm

35. Schottky defect in crystals is observed when (1998)
(a) density of the crystal is increased
(b) unequal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
(c) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
(d) equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice.

36. The high density of water compared to ice is due to (1997)
(a) dipole-induced dipole interactions
(b) induced dipole induced dipole interactions
(c) hydrogen bonding interactions
(d) dipole-dipole interactions.

37. For two ionic solids CaO and KI, identify the wrong statement among the following (1997)
(a) CaO has high melting point
(b) Lattice energy of CaO is much larger than that of KI
(c) KI has high melting point
(d) KI is soluble in benzene.

38. The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in cubic lattice in which both lithium and silver have coordination number of eight. The crystal class is (1997)
(a) face-centred cube
(b) simple cube
(c) body-centred cube
(d) none of these.

39. The fee crystal contains how many atoms in each unit cell? (1996)
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 5

40. If we mix a pentavalent impurity in a crystal lattice of germanium, what type of semiconductor formation will occur? (1996)
(a) n-type semiconductor
(b) p-type semiconductor
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.

41. An element (atomic mass = 100 g/mol) having bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. The density of element is (1996)
(a) 7.289 g/cm³
(b) 2.144 g/cm³
(c) 10.376 g/cm³
(d) 5.188 g/cm³

42. The number of atoms in 100 g of a fcc crystal with density d = 10 g/cm³ and cell edge equal to 100 pm, is equal to (1994)
(a) 2 x 10²⁵
(b) 1 x 1o²⁵
(c) 4 x 1o²⁵
(d) 3 x 1o²⁵

43. Ionic solids, with Schottky defects, contain in their structure (1994)
(a) cation vacancies only
(b) cation vacancies and interstitial cations
(c) equal number of cation and anion vacancies
(d) anion vacancies and interstitial anions.

44. The pure crystalline substance on being heated gradually first forms a turbid liquid at constant temperature and still at higher temperature turbidity completely disappears. The behaviour is a characteristic of substance forming (1993)
(a) allotropic crystals
(b) liquid crystals
(c) isomeric crystals
(d) isomorphouS crystals.

45. On doping Ge metal with a little of In or Ga, one gets (1993)
(a) p-type semiconductor
(b) n-type semiconductor
(c) insulator
(d) rectifier.

46. In the fluorite structure, number of Ca²⁺ ion is the coordination(1993)
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 3

47. The number of atoms contained in a fcc unit cell of a monoatomic substance is (1993)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

48. For orthorhombic system axial ratios are α≠β ≠ γ and the axial angles are (1991)
(a) α=β =γ ≠ 90°
(b) α = β= γ = 90°
(c) α = γ= 90°, β ≠ 90°
(d) α ≠β≠γ≠ 90°

49. Most crystals show good cleavage because their atoms, ions or molecules are (1991)
(a) weakly bonded together
(b) strongly bonded together
(c) spherically symmetrical
(d) arranged in planes.

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Motion in a Plane

April 24, 2018 by Anthony Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions – Motion in a Plane

NEET AIPMT Physics Chapter Wise Solutions Chemistry Biology

1. If vectors $\bar { A }$ = coswt $\hat { i }$ + sinwt $\hat { j }$ and $\bar { B }$ = cos $\frac { wt }{ 2 }$ $\hat { i }$ + sin $\frac { wt }{ 2 }$ $\hat { j }$ are functions of time, then the value of 7 at which they are orthogonal to each other is

2. The position vector of a particle R as a function of time is given by $\xrightarrow { R }$ = 4sin(2πt) $\hat { i }$ + 4cos(2πt) $\hat { j }$ y Where R is in meters, 7 is in seconds and 7 and j denote unit vectors along x-and j’-directions, respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?
(a) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second.
(b) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter.
(c) Acceleration vector is along – $\xrightarrow { R }$
(d) Magnitude of acceleration vector is R where v is $\frac { V2 }{ R }$ the velocity of particle. (AIPMT 2015)

3. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km h^-1and a ship B 100 km South of A, is moving Northwards with a speed of 10 kmh^-1.The time after which the distance between them becomes shortest, is
(a) 5 $\sqrt { 2 }$ h
(b) 10 $\sqrt { 2 }$ h
(c) 0h
(d) 5 h (AIPMT 2015, Cancelled)

4. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 m s^-1and angle 0 with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms^-1at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in m s^-2) is (Given g = 9.8 m s^-2)
(a) 3.5
(b) 5.9
(c) 16.3
(d) 110.8 (AIPMT 2014)

5. A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t=0, (6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and (13 in, 14 m) at time t = 5 s. Average velocity vector (vav) from t = 0 to t = 5 s is

6. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is (2 $\hat { i }$ + 3 $\hat { j }$ ) m/s. It’s velocity (in m/s) at point B is

7. Vectors $\bar { A }$ , $\bar { B }$ and $\bar { C }$ are such that $\bar { A }$ . $\bar { B }$ = 0 and $\bar { A }$ . $\bar { B}$ = 0. Then the vector parallel to A is
(a) $\bar { A }$ x $\bar { B }$
(b) $\bar { B }$ + $\bar { C }$
(c) $\bar { B }$ x $\bar { C }$
(d) $\bar { B }$ and $\bar { C }$ (Karnataka NEET 2013)

8. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is

9. A particle has initial velocity (2) + 3/) and acceleration (0.37 + 0.2/). The magnitude of velocity after 10 seconds will be
(a) 9 $\sqrt { 2 }$ units
(b) 5 $\sqrt { 2 }$ units
(c) 5 units
(d) 9 units (Prelims 2012)

10. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2tt s. The acceleration of the particle is
(a) 15 m/s²
(b) 25 m/s²
(c) 36 m/s²
(d) 5 m/s² (Prelims 2011)

11. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. Ifg = 10 m/s², the range of the missile is
(a) 40 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 60 m
(d) 20 m (Prelims 2011 )

12. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is
(a) 1 m/s²
(b) 7 m/s²
(c) $\sqrt { 7 }$ m/s²
(d) 5 m/s²(Prelims 2011)

13. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of projection, is

14. A particle has initial velocity (3 $\hat { i }$ + 4 $\hat { J }$ ) and has acceleration (0.4 $\hat { i }$ +0.3 $\hat { J }$ ). Its speed after 10 s is
(a) 7 units
(b) 7 $\sqrt { 2 }$ units
(c) 8.5 units
(d) 10 units (Prelims 2010)

15. Six vectors, $\bar { a }$ through $\bar { f }$ have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure. Which of the following statements is true?

16. TTie speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is
(a) 60°
(b) 15°
(c) 30°
(d) 45° (Mains 2010)

17. A particle moves in x-y plane according to rule x = asinωt and y = acosωt. The particle follows
(a) an elliptical path
(b) a circular path
(c) a parabolic path
(d) a straight line path inclined equally to x and y-axes (Mains 2010)

18. A particle shows distance – time curve as given in this figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity of the particle is around the point

(a) D
(b) A
(c) B
(d) C

19. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its momentum will be

20. $\bar { A }$ and $\bar { B }$ are two vectors and 0 is the angle between them, if | $\bar { A }$ x $\bar { B }$ | = $\sqrt { 3 }$ ( $\bar { A }$ . $\bar { B }$ ), the value of 0 is t
(a) 45°
(b) 30°
(c) 90°
(d) 60°. (2007)

21. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x,y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are ( $\sqrt { 3 }$ ,3) . The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 0°
(d) 30°. (2007)

22 . A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity to. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is

23. For angles of projection of a projectile at angle (45° – 0) and (45° + 0), the horizontal range ’ described by the projectile are in the ratio of
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 2:3
(d) 1 :2. (2006)

24. The vectors $\bar { A}$ and $\bar { B}$ are such that \ $\bar { A}$ + $\bar { B}$ \ = \ $\bar { A}$ – $\bar { B}$ |. The angle between the two vectors is
(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 75°. (2006, 1996, 91)
horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes

25. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity V1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity v and catches the other in a time t, where t is

26. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone?
(a) π² ms^-2 and direction along the radius towards the centre
(b) π²ms^-2 and direction along the radius away from the centre
(c) π² ms^-2 and direction along the tangent to the circle
(d) π²/4 ms^-2 and direction along the radius towards the centre. (2005)

27. If the angle between the vectors $\bar { A}$ and $\bar { B}$ is θ,the value of the product ( $\bar{ B}$ x $\bar { A}$ ). $\bar { A}$ is equal to
(a) BA²sinθ
(b) BA4²cosθ
(c) BA²2sinθcosθ
(d) zero. (2005, 1989)

28. If a vector 2 $\hat { i }$ +3 $\hat { j }$ + 8 $\hat { k }$ is perpendicular to the vector 4 $\hat { j }$ – 4 $\hat { i }$ + a $\hat { k }$ , then the value of a is
(a) 1/2
(b) -1/2
(c) 1
(d) -1. (2005)

29. If | $\bar { A}$ x $\bar { B}$ |= $\sqrt { 3 }$ $\bar { A}$ . $\bar { B}$ then the value of | $\bar { A}$ + $\bar { B}$ |

30. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces
(a) are equal to each other
(b) are equal to each other in magnitude
(c) are not equal to each other in magnitude
(d) cannot be predicted. (2003)

31. A particle moves along a circle of radius m with constant tangential acceleration. If the velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second revolution after motion has begun, the tangential acceleration is
(a) 40 m/s²
(b) 6407rm/s²
(c) 1607t m/s²
(d) 407t m/s² (2003)

32. A particle A is dropped from a height and another particle B is projected in horizontal direction with speed of 5 m/sec from the same height then correct statement is:
(a) particle’A will reach at gfound first with respect to particle B
(b) particle B will reach at ground first with respect to particle A
(c) both particles will reach at ground simultaneously
(d) both particles will reach at ground with same speed. (2002)

33. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. Now a force of $\bar { F }$ = 6t² $\hat { i }$ + 4t $\hat { j }$ is applied on the object then velocity of object at t = 3 sec. is

34. If | $\bar { A }$ + $\bar { B }$ |= \ $\bar { A }$ \ + \ $\bar { B }$ \ then angle between A and B will be
(a) 90°
(b) 120°
(c) 0°
(d) 60°. (2001)

35. Two particles having mass M and m are moving in a circular path having radius R and r. If their time period are same then the ratio of angular

36. The width of river is 1 km. The velocity of boat is 5 km/hr. The boat covered the width of river in shortest time 15 min. Then the velocity of river stream is

37. Two projectiles of same mass and with same velocity are thrown at an angle 60° and 30° with the horizontal, then which will remain same
(a) time of flight
(b) range of projectile
(c) maximum height acquired
(d) all of them. (2000)

38. A man is slipping on a ffictionless inclinecTplane and a bag falls down from the same height. Then the velocity of both is related as
(a) V_B>Vm
(b)V_B < Vm
(c) V_B = Vm
(d) V_B and Vm can’t be related. (2000)

39. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m with a velocity of 36 km/hr. The centripetal force is
(a) 1000 N
(b) 750 N
(c) 250 N
(d) 1200 N (1999)

40. A person aiming to reach exactly opposite point on the bank of a stream is swimming with a speed of 0.5 m/s at an angle of 120° with the direction of flow of water. The speed of water in the stream, is
(a) 0.25 m/s
(b) 0.5 m/s
(c) 1.0 m/s
(d) 0.433 m/s (1999)

41. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds are such that each makes a complete circle in the same time t. The ratio of the angular speeds of the first to the second car is
(a) r1 : r2
(b) m1 : m2
(c) 1:1
(d) m1 m2 : r r2 (1999)

42. If a unit vector is represented by 0.5 $\hat { i }$ -0.8 $\hat { j }$ + c $\hat { k }$ then the value of c is

43. What is the value of linear velocity, if $\bar { r }$ =3 $\hat { i }$ -4 $\hat { j }$ + $\hat { k }$ and to $\bar { w }$ = 5 $\hat { i }$ – 6 $\hat { j }$ + 6 $\hat { k }$ ?

44. Two particles A and B are connected by a rigid rod AB. The rod slides along perpendicular rails as shown here. The velocity of A to the left is 10 m/s. What is the velocity of B when angle a = 60°?

(a) 10 m/s
(b) 9.8 m/s
(c) 5.8 m/s
(d) 17.3 m/s. (1998)

45. A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a string of length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal circle. The string will break if the tension is more than 25 N. What is the maximum speed with which the ball can be moved?
(a) 5 m/s
(b) 3 m/s
(c) 14 m/s
(d) 3.92 m/s. (1998)

46. Identify the vector quantity among the following
(a) distance
(b) angular momentum
(c) heat
(d) energy. (1997)

47. A body is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 20 cm. It has an angular velocity of 10 rad/s. What is its linear velocity at any point on circular path?
(a) 20 m/s
(b) $\sqrt { 2 }$ m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) 2 m/s. (1996)

48. The position vector of a particle is $\bar { r }$ =(acoswt) $\hat { i }$ +(asinwt) $\hat { j }$ . The velocity of the particle is
(a) directed towards the origin
(b) directed away from the origin
(c) parallel to the position vector
(d) perpendicular to the position vector. (1995)

49. The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 revolutions/minute is
(a) 4π rad/s
(b) 4π² rad/s
(c) πrad/s
(d) 2π rad/s. (1995)

50. The angle between the two vectors $\bar { A }$ = 3 $\hat { i }$ +4 $\hat { j }$ + 5 $\hat { k }$ and $\bar { B }$ = 3 $\hat { i }$ +4 $\hat { j }$ -5 $\hat { k }$ will be
(a) 90°
(b) 180°
(c) zero
(d) 45°. (1994)

51. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8kmh^-1. If the resultant velocity of boat is 10 kmh^-1, then velocity of river is
(a) 12.8 kmh^-1
(b) 6 kmh^-1
(c) 8 kmh^-1
(d) 10 kmh^-1 (1994, 93)

52. If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity v at an angle of 30° to the horizontal and another body B of the same mass is thrown with the same speed at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, the ratio of horizontal range of A to B will be
(a) 1:3
(b) 1:1
(c) 1: $\sqrt { 3}$
(d) $\sqrt { 3 }$ :l. (1992, 90)

53. The resultant of $\bar { A }$ xO will be equal to
(a) zero
(b) A
(c) zero vector
(d) unit vector. (1992)

54. When milk is churned, cream gets seperated due to
(a) centripetal force
(b) centrifugal force
(c) frictional force
(d) gravitational force (1991)

55. An electric fan has blades of length 30 cm measured from the axis of rotation. If the fan is rotating at 120 rpm, the acceleration of a point on the tip of the blade is
(a) 1600 ms^-2
(b) 47.4 ms^-2
(c) 23.7 ms^-2
(d) 50.55 ms^-2 (1990)

56. The maximum range of a gun of horizontal terrain is 16 km. Ifg = 10 ms^-2 , then muzzle velocity of a shell must be
(a) 160 ms^-1
(b) 20o $\sqrt { 2 }$ ms^-1
(c) 400 ms^-1
(d) 800 ms^-1 (1990)

57. A bus is moving on a straight road towards north with a uniform speed of 50 km/hour then it turns left through 90°. If the speed remains unchanged after turning, the increase in the velocity of bus in the turning process is
(a) 70.7 km/hr along south-west direction
(b) zero
(c) 50 km/hr along west
(d) 70.7 km/hr along north-west direction (1989)

58. The magnitude of vectors $\bar { A }$ , $\bar { B }$ and $\bar { C }$ are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. If $\bar { A }$ + $\bar { B }$ = $\bar { C }$ , the angle between $\bar { A }$ and $\bar { B}$ is
(a) π/2
(b) cos^-1(0.6)
(c) tan^-1(7/5)
(d) π/4. (1988)

59. A train of 150 metre length is going towards north direction at a speed of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at the speed of 5 m/s towards south direction parallel to the railways track. The time taken by the parrot to cross the train is
(a) 12 sec
(b) 8 sec
(c) 15 sec
(d) 10 sec. (1988)

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – p-Block Elements (Group 13 and 14)

April 23, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – p-Block Elements (Group 13 and 14)

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1. It is because of inability of ns² electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that (MEET 2017)
(a) Sn²⁺ is oxidising while Pb⁴⁺ is reducing
(b) Sn²⁺ and Pb²⁺ are both oxidising and reducing
(c) Sn⁴⁺ is reducing while Pb⁴⁺‘ is oxidising
(d) Sn²⁺ is reducing while Pb⁴⁺ is oxidising.

2. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule (NEET-ll 2016)
(a) contains replaceable H⁺ ion
(b) gives up a proton
(c) accepts OH from water releasing proton
(d) combines with proton from water molecule.

3. AlF₃ is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of (NEET-ll 2016)
(a) K₃[AlF₃H₃]
(b) K₃[AlF₆]
(c) AlH₃
(d) K[AlF₃H]

4. The stability of + 1 oxidation state among Al. Ga, In and Tl increases in the sequence (2015. 2009)
(a) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(b) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(c) In < Tl < Ga < Al
(d) Ga < In < Al < Tl

5. Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?(NEET 2013)
(a) B₄C
(b) B₂H₆
(c) BN
(d) B

6. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer? (NEET 2013)
(a) Me₃SiCl
(b) PhSiCl₃
(c) MeSiCL₃
(d) Me₂SiCl₂

7. The basic structural unit of silicates is (NEET 2013)
(a) SiO₃^2-
(b) Si0₄^2-
(c) SiO^–
(d) SiO₄^4-

8. Which statement is wrong? (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) Beryl is an example of cyclic silicate.
(b) Mg₂Si0₄ is orthosilicate.
(c) Basic structural unit in silicates is the Si0₄ tetrahedron.
(d) Feldspars are not aluminosilicates.

9. Name the two type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [Si0₄]^4- is shared? (2011)
(a) Linear chain silicate
(b) Sheet silicate
(c) Pyrosilicate
(d) Three dimensional

10. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (Mains 2011)
(a) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution.
(b) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium silicate.
(c) Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give Al(OH)₃.
(d) NaHC0₃on heating gives Na₂C0₃.

11. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric? (Mains 2011)
(a) Sn0₂
(b) CaO
(c) Si0₂
(d) C0₂

12. Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid? (2010)
(a) NH₃
(b) H₂0
(c) B₂H₆
(d) CH₄

13. The tendency of BF₃, BCl₃ and BBr₃ to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence (2010)
(a) BCl₃ >BF₃ > BBr₃
(b) BBr₃ > BCl₃ > BF₃
(c) BBr₃ > BF₃>BCl₃
(d) BF₃>BCl₃>BBr₃

14. The straight chain polymer is formed by (2009)
(a) hydrolysis of CH₃SiCl₃ followed by condensation polymerisation
(b) hydrolysis of (CH₃)₄Si by addition polymerisation
(c) hydrolysis of (CH₃)₂SiCl₂ followed by condensation polymerisation
(d) hydrolysis of (CH₃)₃SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation.

15. Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively? (2007)
(a) +2,+4
(b) +4,+4
(c) +2,+2
(d) +4,+2.

16. Which of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates? (2007)
(a) (Si₂0₅^2- )n
(b) (SiO₃^2-)n
(c) SiO₄^4-
(d) Si₂O₇^6-

17. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? (2006)
(a) Se0₂
(b) Al₂0₃
(c) Sb₂0₃
(d) Bi₂0₃

18. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is (2006)
(a) sp < sp² < sp³
(b) sp > sp² < sp³
(c) sp > sp² > sp³
(d) sp < sp² > sp³

19. Which one of the following statements about the zeolite is false? (2004)
(a) They are used as cation exchangers.
(b) They have open structure which enables them to take up small molecules.
(c) Zeolites are aluminosilicates having three dimensional network.
(d) Some of the SiO₄^4- units are replaced by AlO₄^5- and AlO₆^9- ions in zeolites.

20. Which one of the following compounds is not a protonic acid? (2003)
(a) B(OH)₃
(b) PO(OH)₃
(c) SO(OH)₂
(d) S0₂(OH)₂

21. Which compound is electron deficient? (2000)
(a) BeCl₂
(b) BCl₃
(c) CCl₄
(d) PCl₅

22. Which of the following does not show electrical conduction? (1999)
(a) Diamond
(b) Graphite
(c) Potassium
(d) Sodium

23. The type of hybridisation of boron in diborane is (1999)
(a) sp³-hybridisation
(b) sp²-hybridisation
(c) sp-hybridisation
(d) sp³d^2-hybridisation

24. Percentage of lead in lead pencil is (1999)
(a) 80
(b) 20
(c) zero
(d) 70

25. In graphite, electrons are (1997,1993)
(a) localised on each C-atom
(b) localised on every third C-atom
(c) spread out between the structure
(d) present in anti-bonding orbital.

26. Boron compounds behave as Lewis acids, because of their (1996)
(a) ionisation property
(b) electron deficient nature
(c) acidic nature
(d) covalent nature.

27. Aluminium (III) chloride forms a dimer because aluminium (1995)
(a) belongs to 3rd group
(b) can have higher coordination number
(c) cannot form a trimer
(d) has high ionization energy.

28. The BCl₃ is a planar molecule whereas NCl₃ is pyramidal because (1995)
(a) nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(b) BCl₃ has no lone pair but NCl₃ has a lone pair of electrons
(c) B—Cl bond is more polar than N—Cl bond
(d) N—Cl bond is more covalent than B—Cl bond.

29. Method used for obtaining highly pure silicon, used as a semiconductor material, is (1994)
(a) crystallization
(b) zone refining
(c) oxidation
(d) electro-chemical.

30. Carbon and silicon belong to (IV) group. The maximum coordination number of carbon in commonly occurring compounds is 4, whereas that of silicon is 6. This is due to (1994)
(a) availability of low lying d-orbitals in silicon
(b) large size of silicon
(c) more electropositive nature of silicon
(d) both (b) and (c).

31. Which of the following statements about H₃B0₃ is not correct? (1994)
(a) It has a layer structure in which planar B0₃ units are joined by hydrogen bonds.
(b) It does not act as proton donor but acts as a Lewis acid by accepting hydroxyl ion.
(c) It is a strong tribasic acid.
(d) It is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax.

32. Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ and Si4+ are isoelectronic, their ionic size will follow the order (1993)
(a) Na⁺ > Mg²⁺ < Al³⁺ < Si⁴⁺
(b) Na⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Al³⁺ < Si⁴⁺
(c) Na⁺> Mg²⁺ > Al³⁺ > Si⁴⁺
(d) Na⁺ < Mg²⁺ > Al³⁺ < Si⁴⁺

33. Which of the following types of forces bind together the carbon atoms in diamond? (1992)
(a) Ionic
(b) Covalent
(c) Dipolar
(d) van der Waals

34. Water gas is produced by (1992)
(a) passing steam through a red hot coke bed
(b) saturating hydrogen with moisture
(c) mixing oxygen and hydrogen in the ratio of 1 : 2
(d) heating a mixture of C0₂ and CH₄ in petroleum refineries.

35. Which of the following is an insulator? (1992)
(a) Graphite
(b)Aluminum
(c) Diamond
(d)Silicon

36. Glass is a (1991)
(a) liquid
(b)Solid
(c) supercooled liquid
(d) transparent organic polymer.

37. The ability of a substance to assume two or more crystalline structures is called (1990)
(a) isomerism
(b) polymorphism
(c) isomorphism
(d) amorphism.

38. The substance used as a smoke screen in warfare is (1989)
(a)SiCl₄
(b)PH₃
(c)PCl₅
(d)acetylene

Answer Key

Explanations

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – s-Block Elements

April 23, 2018 by Kalyan Leave a Comment

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions – s-Block Elements

NEET AIPMT Chemistry Chapter Wise Solutions Physics Biology

1. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field? (NEET 2017)
(a) K
(b) Rb
(c) Li
(d) Na

2. The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as (NEET-11 2016)
(a) lime water
(b) quick lime
(c) milk of lime
(d) aqueous solution of slaked lime.

3. In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect? (NEET-II2016)
(a) It is rendered passive by nitric acid.
(b) It forms Be₂C.
(c) Its salts rarely hydrolyze.
(d) Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.

4. Which of the following statements is false? (NEET-I 2016)
(a) Ca²⁺ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart.
(b) Mg²⁺ ions are important in the green parts of the plants.
(c) Mg²⁺ ions form a complex with ATP.
(d) Ca²⁺ ions are important in blood clotting.

5. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC₂ is (NEET-I 2016)
(a) CaCN₃
(b) Ca₂CN
(c) Ca(CN)₂
(d) CaCN

6. On heating which of the following releases C0₂ most easily? (2015)
(a) Na₂CO₃
(b) MgCO₃
(c) CaC0₃
(d) K₂CO₃

7. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample?
(At. wt. of Mg = 24) (2015)
(a) 96
(b) 60
(c) 84
(d) 75

8. The function of “Sodium pump” is a biological process operating in each and every cell of all animals. Which of the following biologically important ions is also a constituent of this pump? (2015, Cancelled)
(a) K⁺
(b) Fe²⁺
(c) Ca²⁺
(d) Mg²⁺

9. Solubility of the alkaline earth metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence (2015, Cancelled)
(a) Sr>Ca>Mg>Ba
(b) Ba>Mg>Sr>Ca
(c) Mg>Ca>Sr>Ba
(d) Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg

10. In Castner- Kellner cell for production of sodium hydroxide (Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) brine is electrolyzed using graphite electrodes
(b) molten sodium chloride is electrolysed
(c) sodium amalgam is formed at mercury cathode
(d) brine is electrolyzed with Pt electrodes

11. Which one of the alkali metals, forms only, the normal oxide, M₂O on heating in air? (2012)
(a) Rb
(b) K
(c) Li
(d) Na

12. The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resins follows the order: (2012)
(a) Li⁺< K⁺< Na⁺< Rb⁺
(b) Rb⁺ < K⁺ < Na⁺ < Li⁺
(c) K⁺< Na⁺ < Rb⁺ < Li⁺
(d) Na⁺ < Li⁺ < K⁺ < Rb⁺

13. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point? (2011)
(a) CaCl₂
(b) CaBr₂
(c) Cal₂
(d) CaF₂

14. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action? (2011)
(a) CaOCl₂
(b) Ca(OCl)₂
(c) CaO₂Cl
(d) CaCl₂

15. Match List-I with List-II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer using the code given above. (Mains 2011)

(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(v)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

16. Which of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy? (2010)
(a) CaS0₄
(b) BeS0₄
(c) BaS0₄
(d) SrS0₄

17. Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number (2010)
(a) solubility of their hydroxides in water
(b) solubility of their sulphates in water
(c) ionization energy
(d) electronegativity

18. Which one of the following compounds is a peroxide? (2010)
(a) K0₂
(b) BaO₂
(c) Mn0₂
(d) N0₂

19. The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain B. Excess of C0₂ is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed which is recovered in the solid form. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A. The compound is (Mains 2010)
(a) CaC0₃
(b) Na₂C0₃
(c) K₂C0₃
(d) CaS0₄-2H₂0

20. In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order (2009)
(a) MF > MCI > MBr > MI
(b) MF > MCI > Ml > MBr
(c) MI > MBr > MCI > MF
(d) MCI > MI> MBr > MF

21. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide? (2009)
(a) CaO
(b) Si0₂
(c) BeO
(d) B₂0₃

22. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solutions will record the highest pH? (2008)
(a) MgCl₂
(b) CaCl₂
(c) SrCl₂
(d) BaCl₂

23. The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solution is (2008)
(a) Rb⁺ > K⁺ > Cs⁺ > Na⁺
(b) Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Cs⁺
(c) K⁺> Na⁺> Rb⁺ > Cs⁺
(d) Cs⁺> Rb⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺

24. The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides by the direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in which of the following orders? (2008)
(a) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
(b) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
(c) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
(d) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH

25. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K₂C0₃, MgC0₃, CaC0₃ and BeC0₃is (2007)
(a) BeC0₃ < MgC0₃< CaC0₃ < K₂C0₃
(b) MgC0₃ <BeC0₃ < CaC0₃ < K₂C0₃
(c) K₂C0₃ < MgC0₃< CaC0₃ < BeC0₃
(d)BeC0₃ < MgC0₃ <K₂C0₃< CaC0₃

26. In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy? (2007)
(a) MgS0₄
(b) RaS0₄
(c) SrS0₄
(d) BaS0₄

27. The correct order of the mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is (2006)
(a) Rb⁺> K⁺> Na⁺> Li⁺
(b) Li⁺> Na⁺ > K⁺> Rb⁺
(c) Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Li⁺
(d) K⁺> Rb⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

28. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by (2005)
(a) LiCl < NaCl < BeCL₂
(b) BeCl₂< LiCl < NaCl
(c) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl₂
(d) BeCl₂ < NaCl < LiCl

29. A solid compound X on heating gives C0₂ gas and a residue. The residue mixed with water forms Y. On passing an excess of C0₂ through Y in water, a clear solution Z is obtained. On boiling Z, compound X is reformed. The compound X is (2004)
(a) Ca(HC0₃)₂
(b) CaC0₃
(c) Na₂C0₃
(d) K₂C0₃

30. In which of the following processes, fused sodium hydroxide is electrolysed at a 330°C temperature for extraction of sodium? (2000)
(a) Castner’s process
(b) Down’s process
(c) Cyanide process
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c

31. When a substance (A) reacts with water it produces a combustible gas (B) and a solution of substance (C) in water. When another substance (D) reacts with this solution of (C), it also produces the same gas (B) on warming but (D) can produce gas (B) on reaction with dilute sulphuric acid at room temperature. Substance (A) imparts a deep golden yellow colour to a smokeless flame of Bunsen burner. Then (A), (B), (C and (D) respectively are (1998)
(a) Ca, H₂, Ca(OH)₂, Sn
(b) K, H₂, KOH, A1
(c) Na, H₂, NaOH, Zn
(d) CaC₂, C₂H₂, Ca(OH)₂, Fe

32. Calcium is obtained by the (1997)
(a) electrolysis of solution of calcium chloride in water
(b) electrolysis of molten anhydrous calcium chloride
(c) roasting of limestone
(d) reduction of calcium chloride with carbon.

33. Sodium is made by the electrolysis of a molten mixture of about 40% NaCl and 60% CaCl₂ because (1995)
(a) Ca⁺⁺ can reduce NaCl to Na
(b) Ca⁺⁺ can displace Na from NaCl
(c) CaCl₂ helps in conduction of electricity
(d) this mixture has a lower melting point than NaCl.

34. The solubility in water of sulphate down the Be group is Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba. This is due to (1995)
(a) decreasing lattice energy
(b) high heat of solvation for smaller ions like Be²⁺
(c) increase in melting points
(d) increasing molecular weight.

35. Identify the correct statement. (1995)
(a) Plaster of Paris can be obtained by hydration of gypsum.
(b) Plaster of Paris is obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum.
(c) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than Plaster of Paris.
(d) Gypsum is obtained by heating Plaster of Paris.

36. Which of the following is known as fusion mixture? (1994)
(a) Mixture of Na₂C0₃ + NaHC0₃
(b) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O
(c) Mixture of K₂C0₃ + Na₂C0₃
(d) NaHC0₃

37. All the following substances react with water. The pair that gives the same gaseous product is (1994)
(a) K and K0₂
(b) Na and Na₂0₂
(c) Ca and CaH₂
(d) Ba and Ba0₂.

38. Among the following oxides, the ong which is most basic is (1994)
(a) ZnO
(b) MgO
(c) Al₂0₃
(d) N₂0₅

39. Which of the following metal ions play an important role in muscle contraction? (1994)
(a) K⁺
(b) Na⁺
(c) Mg²⁺
(d) Ca²⁺

40. Which of the following statement is false? (1994)
(a) Strontium decomposes water readily than beryllium.
(b) Barium carbonate melts at a higher temperature than calcium carbonate.
(c) Barium hydroxide is more soluble in water than magnesium hydroxide.
(d) Beryllium hydroxide is more basic than barium hydroxide.

41. Which one of the following has minimum value of cation/anion ratio? (1993)
(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) MgCl₂
(d) CaF₂

42. Which of the following has largest size? (1993)
(a) Na
(b) Na⁺
(c) Na^–
(d) Can’t be predicted.

43. Which compound will show the highest lattice energy? (1993)
(a) RbF
(b) CsF
(c) NaF
(d) KF

44. Strongest bond is in between (1993)
(a) CsF
(b) NaCl
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.

45. Electronic configuration of calcium atom may be written as (1992)
(a) [Ne] 4p²
(b) [Ar] 4s²
(c) [Ne] 4s²
(d) [Ar] 4p²

46. Which one of the following substance is used in the laboratory for fast drying of neutral gases? (1992)
(a) Phosphorus pentoxide
(b) Active charcoal
(c) Anhydrous calcium chloride
(d) Na₃P0₄

47. Compared with the alkaline earth metals, the alkali metals exhibit (1990)
(a) smaller ionic radii
(b) highest boiling points
(c) greater hardness
(d) lower ionization energies.

48. Washing soda has formula (1990)
(a) Na₂C0₃.7H₂0
(b) Na₂CO₃.10H₂O
(c) Na₂C0₃.3H₂0
(d) Na₂C0₃

49. Which one of the following properties of alkali metals increases in magnitude as the atomic number rises? (1989)
(a) Ionic radius
(b) Melting point
(c) Electronegativity
(d) First ionization energy

50. Which of the following atoms will have the smallest size? (1989)
(a) Mg
(b) Na
(c) Be
(d)Li